Civil Aviation Act, 2009 (Act No. 13 of 2009)RegulationsCivil Aviation Regulations, 2011Part 1 : General ProvisionsSubpart 1 : Definitions and Abbreviations1.01.1 Definitions |
In these regulations, any word or expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the Act shall have that meaning and, unless the context otherwise indicate—
"ab initio"
when referring to flight training, means the practical training required towards the first issue of a national or PPL, issued in terms of Part 61 or Part 62, or for the endorsement of such a licence with an additional category of aircraft, and for the purpose of regulation 91.02.3 excludes cross-country flight training;
"ACAS current"
refers to a pilot that has either undergone ACAS II initial training or ACAS II renewal training within the prescribed period;
"ACAS cyclic training"
means training conducted in accordance with an ACAS II syllabus as part of an approved training programme of which part of the tests and checks are subject to approval by the Director;
"ACAS initial training"
means training in accordance with the initial training component of an ACAS II syllabus;
"ACAS instructor"
means an appropriately rated flight instructor who is an ACAS current pilot;
"ACAS renewal training"
means training in accordance with the renewal training component of an ACAS II syllabus;
"ACAS syllabus"
means a syllabus of training in the use of ACAS II;
"accelerate-stop distance available"
means the length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway, if such stopway is declared available and is capable of bearing the mass of the aeroplane under the prevailing operating conditions;
"access control"
means the security procedure applied to ensure that only persons authorised, authorised vehicles and authorised items carried by such persons or transported in such vehicles are allowed access into the premises or zone being controlled;
"accident"
means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which, in the case of a manned aircraft takes place between the time any person boards an aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked, or in the case of an unmanned aircraft, takes place between the time an aircraft is ready to move with the purpose of flight until such time it comes to rest at the end of a flight and the primary propulsion system is shut down, in which—
(a) | a person is fatally or seriously injured as result of— |
(i) | being in such aircraft; |
(ii) | direct contact with any part of such aircraft, including parts which have become detached or are released therefrom; or |
(iii) | direct exposure to jet blast, rotor or propeller wake, |
except when such injury is from natural causes, self-inflicted or inflicted by any other person, or when such injury is to a stowaway hiding outside an area normally available to passengers and flight crew;
(b) an aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which—
(i) | adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of such aircraft; and |
(ii) | would normally require major repair or replacement of [the] an affected component, |
except for engine failure or damage when the damage is limited to a single engine including its cowlings or accessories, propellers, wing tips, antennas, probes, vanes, tyres, brakes, wheels, fairings, panels, landing gear doors, windscreens, the aircraft skin (such as small dents or puncture holes), or for minor damages to main rotor blades, tail rotor blades, landing gear, and holes resulting from hail or bird strike (including holes in a radome); or
(c) | an aircraft is still missing after an official search has been terminated and its wreckage has not been located; or |
(d) | an aircraft is in a place where it is completely inaccessible; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"accountable manager"
means a single, identifiable person within an entity who has full responsibility for the organisation's on-going compliance with the CAR and have full authority for human resources issues, authority for major financial issues, direct responsibility for the conduct of the organisation’s affairs, final authority over operations under certificate and final responsibility for all safety and security issues;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"accredited medical conclusion"
means the conclusion reached by one or more medical experts acceptable to the Director for the purposes of the case concerned, in consultation with flight operations or other experts as necessary;
"accredited representative"
means a person designated or accepted in terms of Regulation 12.01.6 on the basis of his or her qualifications or experience, for the purpose of participating in an investigation conducted by the Republic or another State;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"accuracy"
in relation to GNSS, refers to the degree of conformance between the estimated, measured, or desired position or velocity of a system at a given time and its true position or velocity, usually presented as a statistical measure of system error, and is specified as predictable, repeatable and relative;
"acoustical change"
means any voluntary change in type design which may increase the noise levels of the aircraft;
"active flight deck duty"
means the time spent on duty on the flight deck during a sector excluding any break of not Jess than one hour whilst being relieved by an additional crew member;
"acts of unlawful interference"
means acts or attempted acts that jeopardise the safety of civil aviation and air transport, such as—
(a) | unlawful seizure of aircraft in flight; |
(b) | unlawful seizure of aircraft on the ground; |
(c) | hostage-taking on board an aircraft or on aerodromes; |
(d) | forcible intrusion on board an aircraft, at an airport or on the premises of an aeronautical facility; |
(e) | introduction on board an aircraft or at an airport of a weapon or hazardous device or material intended for criminal purposes; |
(f) | communication of false information as to jeopardize the safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, of passengers, crew, ground personnel or the general public, at an airport or on the premises of a civil aviation facility; |
(g) | forcible intrusion of an ATS Facility; |
(h) | threatening to do harm to an Air Traffic Controller or an ATS Facility; |
(i) | unlawful transmissions on an ATS Frequency; |
(j) | unlawful interference, electronically or physically, with an ATS Frequency; |
(k) | unlawful destruction of an ATS Facility; |
"adapted competency model"
means a group of competencies with their associated description and performance criteria adapted from an ICAO competency framework that an organisation uses to develop competency-based training and assessment for a given role;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(a) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"additional cabin crew member"
means a cabin crew member carried over and above the minimum number required by subpart 2 of Part 91;
"additional flight crew member''
means a flight crew member carried over and above the minimum number required by subpart 2 of Part 91;
"adequate aerodrome"
means an aerodrome licensed in terms of Part 139 or is found to be equivalent to the safety requirements prescribed in Part 139 and which meets the requirements of regulation 91.07.5 for the type of aircraft operating into it;
"adjustable-pitch propeller"
means a propeller, the pitch setting of which can be conveniently changed in the course of ordinary field maintenance, but which cannot be changed when the propeller is rotating;
"advisor"
means a person designated or accepted in terms of Regulation 12.01.7 on the basis of his or her qualifications or experience, for the purpose of assisting the accredited representative in the investigation of an accident or incident in the Republic or another State;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"advisory airspace"
means an airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which an air traffic advisory service is available;
"advisory area"
means a designated area within a flight information region where air traffic advisory services are available;
"advisory circular"
means a publication issued by the Director that provides guidance for compliance with the Regulations;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"advisory route"
means a designated route along which air traffic advisory services are available;
"aerial work"
means an aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services which shall include—
(a) | agricultural spraying, seeding and dusting; |
(b) | cloud spraying, seeding and dusting; |
(c) | culling; |
(d) | construction; |
(e) | aerial harvesting; |
(f) | aerial patrol, observation and survey; |
(g) | aerial advertisement, including banner towing and other towing of objects; |
(h) | search and rescue; |
(i) | parachuting; |
(j) | aerial recording by photographic or electronic means; |
(k) | fire spotting, control and fighting; and |
(l) | spraying, seeding or dusting other than for agricultural purposes; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aerobatic flight"
means manoeuvres intentionally performed by the PIC of an aircraft and involving an abrupt change in attitude of the aircraft, an abnormal attitude or an abnormal variation in speed, not necessary for normal flight;
"aerodrome"
means an aerodrome as defined in the Act, and for the purposes of these Regulations includes a heliport;
"aerodrome climatological summary"
means a summary of specified meteorological elements at an aerodrome, based on statistical data;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"aerodrome control service"
means an air traffic control service provided for the control of aerodrome traffic;
"aerodrome control tower"
means an air traffic control unit established to provide an air traffic control service to aerodrome traffic;
"aerodrome flight information service"
means a flight information service provided in the area of an aerodrome;
"aerodrome manager"
means the person appointed as aerodrome manager in terms of Part 139 by the holder of an aerodrome licence;
"aerodrome mapping data"
means data collected for the purpose of com piling aerodrome mapping information;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aerodrome mapping database"
means a collection of aerodrome mapping data organised and arranged as a structured data set;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aerodrome climatological table"
means table providing statistical data on the observed occurrence of one or more meteorological elements at an aerodrome;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"aerodrome meteorological office"
means an office designated to provide a meteorological service for an aerodrome serving international air navigation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"aerodrome operating minima"
means the limits of usability of an aerodrome for:
(a) | take-off, expressed in terms of RVR and/or visibility and, if necessary, cloud conditions; |
(b) | landing in 2D instrument approach, expressed in terms of visibility and/or RVR (MDA/H) and if necessary, cloud conditions; and |
(c) | landing in 3D instrument approach operations expressed in terms of visibility and/or RVR and/or DA/H; as appropriate to the type and/or category of the operation; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"aerodrome operational area"
means the movement area at an aerodrome and its associated strips and safety areas excluding restricted areas and aprons and includes any ground installation or facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of aircraft operations;
"aerodrome pair"
means two aerodromes composed of a departing aerodrome and an arrival aerodrome;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"aerodrome traffic"
means all traffic on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome and all aircraft in, entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit;
"aerodrome traffic zone"
means a defined portion of airspace at an aerodrome where aerodrome control or flight information service has been established for the protection of aerodrome traffic and is in operation as published in the IAIP and designated as an aerodrome traffic zone;
"aeronautical chart"
means a representation of a portion of the earth, its culture and relief, specifically designated to meet the requirements of air navigation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(d) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aeronautical data"
means a representation of aeronautical facts, concepts or instructions in a formalised manner suitable for communication, interpretation and processing;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"aeronautical data catalogue"
means a general description of an AIM data scope in which all data that can be collected and maintained by AIS is consolidated;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aeronautical fixed service"
means a telecommunication service between specified fixed points provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular, efficient and economical operation of air services;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aeronautical fixed telecommunication network"
means a worldwide system of aeronautical fixed circuits provided, as part of aeronautical fixed service, for exchange of messages or digital data between aeronautical fixed stations having the same or compatible communications characteristics;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(b) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"aeronautical information"
means information resulting from assembly, analysis and formatting of aeronautical data;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"Aeronautical Information Circular"
means circular containing information which does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AlP issued by the Director in terms of regulation 11.01.2;
"Aeronautical Information Management"
means a dynamic, integrated management of aeronautical information through the provision and exchange of quality-assured digital aeronautical data in collaboration with the relevant parties;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aeronautical information product"
means aeronautical data and aeronautical information provided either as digital data sets or as a standardised presentation in paper or electronic media and includes:
(a) | AIP; |
(b) | AIC; |
(c) | aeronautical chart; |
(d) | NOTAM; and |
(e) | digital data set; |
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"Aeronautical Information Publication"
means a publication containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation;
"aeronautical information regulation and controls"
means a system aimed at advanced notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances which require significant changes in operating practices;
"aeronautical information service (AIS)"
means a service established within the defined area of coverage responsible for the provision of aeronautical information/data necessary for the safety, regularity and efficiency of air navigation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"aeronautical meteorological station"
means a station designated to make observations and meteorological reports for use in international air navigation'
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"aeronautical station"
means a land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances, an aeronautical station may be located, for example, on board ship or on a platform at sea;
"aeroplane"
means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft deriving its lift in flight mainly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight;
"AIP Amendment"
means permanent changes to the information contained in the AIP which are published by means of special pages;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(d) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"AIP Supplement"
means the temporary changes to the information contained in the AlP which are published by means of special pages;
"air ambulance"
means an aircraft used for the purposes of transporting a patient, or a person for whom there can be reasonable expectations that they will require medical attention during the transportation, and equipped in accordance with the provisions of Part 138;
"air ambulance operation"
means air transportation of a patient, or person for whom there can be a reasonable expectation that they will require medical attention during the transportation which is operated in terms of Part 138;
"air carrier security officer"
means a person referred to in regulation 111.01.4(1);
"airborne collision avoidance system"
means an aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder signals that operates independently of ground-based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponders by issuing either a traffic alert, a traffic advisory or a traffic resolution;
"airborne navigation database"
refers to an electronic memory device containing information on aerodromes, navigation aids reporting points, standard instrument departures, standard instrument arrivals, instrument approaches, special-use airspace, and any other data of value to the pilot;
"AIRMET information"
means information issued b a MWO concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low-level flights in an FIR concerned or sub-area thereof;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"air carrier"
means a commercial air transport operator providing either a Scheduled or a non-scheduled air service;
"air carrier security programme"
means an aviation security programme developed by an air carrier;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(g) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aircraft"
means an aircraft as defined in the Act;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"aircraft avionics"
means an electronic device, including the electrical part, for use in an aircraft, including radio, automatic flight control, and instrument systems;
"aircraft - category"
means a classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics, e.g. aeroplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon;
"aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation"
means a type of aircraft which the State of Registry has determined, during the certification process, that it can be operated safely with a minimum crew of one pilot;
"aircraft component"
means any component part of an aircraft including a complete airframe or power plant and any operational or emergency equipment fitted to or provided in an aircraft;
"aircraft flight manual"
means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft;
Note- | Also referred to as "aeroplane flight manual" or "helicopter flight manual' |
"aircraft maintenance organisation"
means an organisation approved to perform maintenance of an aircraft, engine, propeller or parts thereof and operating under the supervision as approved by an appropriate Authority of a State;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aircraft observation"
means an evaluation of one or more meteorological elements made from an aircraft in flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(d) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"aircraft operating manual"
means a manual acceptable to the State of an Operator, containing normal, abnormal and emergency procedures, checklists, limitations, performance information, details of aircraft systems and other material relevant to the operation of an aircraft as prescribed in Parts 121, 127 and 135 and may incorporate an aircraft flight manual;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot"
means a type of aircraft that is required to be operated with a co-pilot, as specified in the flight manual or in the air operator certificate;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"aircraft security search"
means an inspection of the exterior and interior of an aircraft to which passengers or cargo may have had access and an inspection of the cargo and baggage hold for the purposes of searching for suspicious objects, weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices, articles and substances;
"aircraft stand taxi lane"
means a portion of an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to provide access to aircraft stands only;
"aircraft tracking"
means a process established by an air service operator, that maintains and updates, at standardized intervals, a ground-based record of four dimensional position or individual aircraft in flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"aircraft type"
means—
(a) | with respect to personnel licensing, all aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications thereto except those modifications which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics; |
(b) | when used in reference to the certification of aircraft, a classification of aircraft having similar design characteristics; |
"aircraft variant"
as used with respect to the licensing and operation of flight crew, means an aircraft of the same basic certificated type which contains modifications not resulting in significant changes of handling and/or flight characteristic, or flight crew complement, but causing significant changes to equipment and/or procedures;
"air defence identification zone (ADIZ)"
means a special designated airspace of defined dimensions within which aircraft are required to comply with special identification and/or reporting procedures additional to those related to the provision of air traffic services;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"airframe"
means fuselage, empennage and wings or rotors;
"air-ground radio station"
means an aeronautical telecommunication station having primary responsibility for handling communications pertaining to the operation and control of aircraft in a given area;
"airline"
means a commercial air transport operator providing a scheduled air service;
"air navigation infrastructure"
means infrastructure including air navigation, communication and surveillance aids and air traffic control systems, provided for the movement of air traffic and where applicable, any building or structure on or to which such infrastructure or part thereof is housed or attached, and includes the premises on which such infrastructure or part thereof is situated, whether these are situated inside an aerodrome or elsewhere;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(h) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"Air Navigation Service Provider"
means an organisation or body responsible for providing air traffic, navigation and associated services and infrastructure at aerodromes or in designated airspace;
"airmanship"
means the consistent use of good judgment and well-developed knowledge, skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives;
"air operator certificate"
means a certificate authorizing an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport operations;
"airport authority"
in respect of an airport, means the organisation in control of such an airport and acting through the relevant airport manager, or the person in control of such an airport;
"airport security officer"
means a person referred to in regulation 111.01.3(1) and appointed in terms of section 110 of the Act;
Note- | Operations Specifications form part of an AOC. |
"air-report"
means a report from an aircraft in flight prepared to conform with requirements for position, operational and meteorological reporting;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"air service"
means an air service as defined in section 1 of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No. 115 of 1990);
"air service operator"
means a commercial air transport operator providing a scheduled, a non-scheduled or a general air service;
"Air Services Licensing Act"
means the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act 115 of 1990);
"airship"
means a power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft;
"air side"
means the movement area of an aerodrome, adjacent terrain and buildings or portions thereof to which access is controlled by the aerodrome licence holder ;
"air-taxiing"
means the movement of a helicopter NTOL above the surface of an aerodrome, normally in ground effect and at a ground speed normally less than 20 km (37 km/h);
Note- | The actual height may vary, and some helicopters may require air-taxiing above 25ft (8 m) AGL to reduce ground effect turbulence or provide clearance for cargo slingloads. |
"air traffic"
means all aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome;
"air traffic advisory service"
means a service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans;
"air traffic control clearance"
means an authorisation for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit;
Notes—
(a) | For convenience, the term "air traffic control clearance" is frequently abbreviated to "clearance"when used in appropriate contexts. |
(b) | The abbreviated term "clearance" may be prefixed by taxi words "taxi","take-off", "departure", 'tin route", "approach" or '1anding" to indicate tl1e particular portion of flight to which the air traffic control clearance relates. |
"air traffic controller"
means the holder of a valid air traffic service licence and valid rating which permits such holder to provide an air traffic control service;
"air traffic controller schedule"
means a schedule for allocating air traffic service personnel and their duty periods;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(j) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"air traffic management"
means a dynamic, integrated management of air traffic and airspace including air traffic services, airspace management and air traffic flow management for safe, economical and efficient provision of facilities and seamless services, involving airborne and ground-based functions;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(j) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"air traffic control instruction"
means directives issued by an Air traffic Controller with the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action;
"air traffic control service"
means a service provided for the purpose of—
(a) | preventing collisions between aircraft or between aircraft and obstructions; and |
(b) | expediting and maintaining an order1y flow of air traffic; |
"air traffic control unit"
means an aerodrome control tower, an approach control office or an area control centre or a combination thereof;
"air traffic control zone"
means airspace of defined dimensions established for the protection of air traffic on or at an aerodrome where an air traffic control service is provided;
"air traffic service"
means a service provided for the purpose of safe and efficient conduct of flight, expeditious and orderly flow of air traffic, assisting in aircraft search and rescue, and includes—
(a) | an aerodrome control service; |
(b) | an approach control service; |
(c) | an area control service; |
(d) | a surveillance service; |
(e) | a flight information service; |
(f) | an aerodrome flight information service; |
(g) | an air traffic advisory service; and |
(h) | an alerting service; |
"air traffic services airspaces"
means airspaces of defined dimensions, alphabetically designated, within which specific types of flights may operate and for which air traffic services and rules of operation are specified;
"air traffic service assistant"
means the holder of an air traffic service licence and rating who provides—
(a) | assistant services to an air traffic controller; or |
(b) | co-ordination services, clearance delivery services, flight information services or aerodrome flight information services; |
"air traffic service flight plan"
means specified information, relating to the intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft, which is provided to an ATSU;
"air traffic service inspector"
means a person designated as such by the Director in terms of section 88 of the Act;
"air traffic service personnel"
means air traffic controllers and air traffic service assistants;
"air traffic service reporting office"
means an ATSU established for the purpose of receiving reports concerning air traffic services and flight plans submitted before the departure of an aircraft from an aerodrome;
"air traffic service route"
means a division of airspace designed for ensuring the flow of air traffic as necessary for the provision of air traffic services;
Notes—
(a) | The term "ATS route" is used to mean variously, airway, advisory route, controlled or uncontrolled route, arrival or departure route, etc. |
(b) | An ATS route is defined by route specifications which include an ATS route designator, the track to or from significant points (waypoints), distance between significant points, reporting requirements and, the lowest safe altitude. |
(c) | The term ATS route makes reference to divisions of airspace in both controlled and uncontrolled airspace which are not always clearly defined as it may also be extended to include additional portions of airspace required to accommodate the density of air traffic using this route. |
"air traffic service unit"
means an air traffic control unit, flight information centre or air traffic service reporting office;
"airway"
means a control area or a portion thereof established in the form of a corridor;
"airway bill"
means the document referred to in regulation 23 of the Domestic Air Services Regulations, issued in terms of section 29 of the Air Services Licensing Act, No. 115 of 1990;
"airworthiness data"
means any information necessary to ensure that an aircraft or aircraft component can be maintained in an airworthy condition;
"airworthiness standards"
includes maintenance standards;
"airworthy"
means—
(a) | a status of an aircraft, RPS, engine, propeller, or aircraft part when it conforms to its approved design and is in a condition for safe operation; and |
(b) | when used in relation to an aircraft, that an aircraft is serviceable and meets all the requirements prescribed for the issuance of a certificate of airworthiness and such other requirements as have been prescribed for the continuing validity of such a certificate; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(c) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"AIS product"
means aeronautical data and aeronautical information/data provided in the form of the elements of Integrated Aeronautical Information Package (except NOTAM and PIB), including aeronautical charts, or in the form of suitable electronic media;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(g) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"AIS provider"
means an AIS certificate holder, authorised to provide aeronautical information service;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"aisle"
means a longitudinal passageway between seats in an aircraft;
"alerting service"
means a service provided to notify and assist the appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and to assist such organisations as appropriate;
"alternate aerodrome"
means an aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at an aerodrome of intended landing, and includes the following:
(a) | a take-off alternate, which is an alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use an aerodrome of departure; |
(b) | en-route alternate, which is an aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land after experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition while en-route; |
(c) | ETOPS en-route alternate, which is a suitable and appropriate alternate aerodrome at which an aeroplane would be able to land after experiencing an engine shutdown or other abnormal or emergency condition while en-route in an ETOPS operation; and |
(d) | destination alternate, which is an alternate aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at an aerodrome of intended landing. |
Note-An aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en-route or a destination alternate aerodrome for that flight.
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(l) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"alternative means of compliance"
means an approved alternative to the prescribed approach, which has been demonstrated to consistently achieve or exceed the required outcomes as intended through regulation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(l) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"all weather operations"
means any take-off, en route or landing operations in IMC and operated in accordance with IFR;
"alternate aerodrome/heliport"
[Definition deleted by regulation 2(m) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"altimetry system error"
means the difference between the altitude indicated by the altimeter display, assuming a correct altimeter barometric setting, and the pressure altitude corresponding to the undisturbed ambient pressure;
"altitude"
means the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea level;
"amateur-built aircraft"
means an aircraft built in terms of the provisions of Part 24, including any of its components and includes production-built aircraft from which the build standard was deviated from;
"amphibious aeroplane"
means an aeroplane designed and constructed to take-off from and land on land surfaces as well as water surfaces;
"amphibious aircraft"
means amphibious aeroplanes and amphibious helicopters;
"amphibious helicopter"
means a helicopter equipped with wheels, skids, floats or other devices, but excluding emergency flotation equipment, enabling it to land and take-off from land as well as water surfaces ;
"anticipated operating conditions"
means a condition which is known from experience or which can be reasonably envisaged to occur during an operational life of an aircraft or RPS taking into account the operations for which an aircraft or RPS is eligible for any condition so considered being relative to the meteorological state of the atmosphere, to the configuration of terrain, to the functioning of an aircraft or RPS, to the efficiency of personnel and to all the factors affecting safety in flight, excluding those extremes which—
(a) | can be effectively avoided by means of operating procedures; and |
(b) | occur so infrequently that to require the applicable Standards to be met in such extremes would give a higher level of airworthiness than experience has shown to be necessary and practical; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(d) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"appliance"
means any instrument, mechanism, equipment, part, apparatus, appurtenance or accessory, including communications equipment, which is used or intended to be used in operating or controlling an aircraft, is installed in or attached to the aircraft, and is not part of an airframe, engine or propeller;
"application"
in relation to AIS refers to manipulation and processing of data in support of user requirements;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(h) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"approach and landing operation with vertical guidance"
means an instrument approach and landing that utilises lateral and vertical guidance but does not meet the requirement established for precision approaches and landing operations;
"approach and landing phase helicopters"
means that part of the flight from 1000 feet (300 meters) above the elevation of the final approach and take off area, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or from the commencement of the descent in the other cases to landing or to the missed approach point;
"approach control unit"
means an air traffic control unit established to provide an air traffic control service in the controlled airspace for which it is responsible, to controlled flights arriving at or departing from one or more aerodromes;
"approach control service"
means an air traffic control service for arriving or departing flights in controlled airspaces;
"appropriate airworthiness requirements"
means the comprehensive and detailed airworthiness codes established, adopted or accepted by the Director for the class of aircraft, engine or propeller under consideration;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"appropriate ATS authority"
means the relevant authority designated by the Director as being responsible for providing air traffic services in the airspace concerned;
"appropriate authority"
(a) | means any duly appointed institution, body or person in a State or territory which, on behalf of that State or territory carries out the provisions of the Convention on behalf of the state; or |
(b) | if such Convention does not apply to a State or territory, means the institution, body or person in that State or territory which on behalf of the State or territory, performs the functions which are performed by an institution, body or person contemplated in paragraph (a), and which is recognised as such by the Director; |
Note— | Nothing in this definition is intended to preclude that the organization and its supervision be approved by more than one State. |
"approved"
means accepted by the Director as suitable for a particular purpose;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"approved maintenance schedule"
means a document compiled by an owner or operator in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations, and approved by the Director in terms of regulation 43.02.1 of Part 43, that prescribes in detail the inspections that need to be carried out in respect of an aircraft, its components, installed systems and equipment, and the intervals between such inspections;
"approved person"
means a natural person who has been authorised in terms of Part 66 by the Director or the organisation designated for the purpose in terms of Part 149, as the case may be, to carry out maintenance inspections and repairs on a non-type certificated aircraft in compliance with the applicable aircraft maintenance schedule;
"approved test centre"
means a facility approved in terms of Part 66 to conduct skills test;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(e) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"approved training"
means training conducted in terms of Part 141 under special curricula and supervision, approved by the Director;
"apron"
means a defined area on a land aerodrome intended to accommodate aircraft for the purpose of loading or unloading passengers or cargo, refuelling, parking or maintenance;
"apron taxiway"
means a portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron;
"area control centre"
means an ATSU established to provide an air traffic service to air traffic within the airspace for which it is responsible;
"area control service"
means an air traffic control service for controlled flights in control areas;
"area navigation"
means a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space based navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self contained aids, or a combination of these;
Note- | Area navigation includes performance-based navigation as well as other operations that do not meet the definition of performance-based navigation. |
"Article 83"
means the provisions of Article 83 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation, 1944 (Chicago Convention);
"Article 83 bis"
means the provisions of Article 83 bis of the Convention on International Civil Aviation, 1944 (Chicago Convention);
"Article 83 bis Agreement"
means an agreement between two Contracting States that have ratified Article 83 bis, in terms of which the State of Registry transfers all or some of its functions and duties to the State of the Operator;
"ASHTAM"
means a special series NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format change in activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption or volcanic ash cloud that is of significance to aircraft operations;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"assistant service"
means a service of assisting licensed air traffic controllers to discharge air traffic service related duties;
"ATO off-base training"
means a pre-approved training conducted under the supervision of an ATO for a specified period at a facility other than a base of ATO as approved in terms of these regulations;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(p) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"ATS frequency"
means an electronic radio frequency within the aviation frequency band used for the transmission and receipt of communication, navigation and surveillance data signals or voice communication;
"ATS facility"
means an, ATSU, tower, centre or any part of the communication; navigation or surveillance infrastructure set up for the provision of air traffic and associated services;
"ATS Routes"
means a specified route designed for channelling the flow of traffic as necessary for the provision of air traffic services;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"ATS surveillance service"
means a service provided directly by means of an ATS surveillance system;
"attribution"
means the act of assigning an aeroplane operator to a State or assigning an international flight to an aeroplane operator in terms of Part 91;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(q) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"ATS surveillance system"
is a generic term referring to ADS-B, PSR, SSR or any comparable ground-based system that enables the identification of aircraft;
"Authority"
means the South African Civil Aviation Authority;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(j) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"authority to fly"
means the authority to fly issued in terms of Subpart 2 of Part 24 of the Regulations as a restricted certificate of airworthiness;
"automatic activation device"
means an automatic altitude and descent-rate activated device designated to activate a parachute;
"automatic dependent surveillance - broadcast"
is the means by which aircraft, aerodrome vehicles and other objects can automatically transmit and/or receive data such as identification, position and additional data, as appropriate, in a broadcast mode via a data link;
"automatic dependent surveillance - contract"
is the means by which the terms of an ADS-C agreement are exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, via a data link, specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated, and what data would be contained in the reports;
Note- | the abbreviated term "ADS contract' is commonly used to refer to ADS event contract, ADS demand contract, ADS periodic contract or an emergency mode. |
"automatic terminal information service"
means an automatic provision of current routine information to an arriving and departing aircraft;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(r) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"autonomous operation"
means an operation during which an unmanned aircraft is operating without intervention in the management of the flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"autonomous unmanned aircraft"
means an unmanned aircraft that does not allow intervention in the management of the flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"availability"
in relation to GNSS refers to an indication of the ability of the system to provide usable service within the specified coverage area and is defined as the portion of time during which—
(a) | the system is to be used for navigation; and |
(b) | reliable navigation information is presented to the flight crew, autopilot or other system managing the flight of the aircraft; |
"aviation recreation"
means flying microlight, glider, balloon, gyroplane, hang glider, paraglider, model aircraft, light sport aeroplane, touring motor glider, parachute or involvement in aviation events;
"aviation security"
means the safeguarding of aviation against acts of unlawful interference, the objective of which is achieved by a combination of measures and human and material resources;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(f) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"aviation security training organisation"
means any organisation registered in terms of the Companies Act, 2008 (Act No 71 of 2008) or the Close Corporations Act of 1984 (Act No 69 of 1984) and approved to conduct aviation security training by the appropriate authority;
"aviation training organisation"
means an organisation approved by an appropriate Authority to conduct aviation training;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(o) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"background check"
means the checking of a person's identity and previous experience, including any criminal history as part of the assessment of an individual's suitability to implement a security control and/or for unescorted access to a security restricted area;
"balloon"
means a non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft;
"bare earth"
means a surface of the earth including bodies of water, permanent ice and snow, excluding vegetation and man-made objects;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(s) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"BARO VNAV system"
refers to a non-precision navigation system that presents computed vertical guidance to the pilot, associated to a specified Vertical Path Angle (VPA), nominally three degrees (3.), which is referenced to barometric altitude and which is specified as a VPA from a Reference Datum Height (RDH);
"base jumps"
means a parachute descent from an object other than an aircraft;
"Baseline CAA"
means a civil aviation authority whose approval establishes a baseline for the alternative approval process of a foreign ATO;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(t) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"beyond visual line-of-sight"
means an operation in which the remote pilot cannot maintain direct unaided visual contact with the remotely piloted aircraft to manage its flight and to meet separation and collision avoidance responsibilities visually;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"break"
for the purposes of Part 65, means a period of responsibility-free duty time within the period of rostered operational duty, during which air traffic service personnel are released from all operational responsibilities;
"briefing"
means oral commentary on existing, expected and potential conditions;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(g) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"build standard"
means the document package that defines the dimensions, materials and processes to be used in the construction of an aircraft, together with associated documents that show that the design complies with an established design criteria;
"cabin crew"
means the collective of cabin crew members on board an aircraft;
"cabin crew member"
means a crew member licensed in terms of Part 64 who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the PIC of the aircraft, but who shall not act as a flight crew member;
"canopy"
means bare earth supplemented by vegetation height;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(u) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"captive balloon"
means a balloon which is moored to the surface or to a ship, vehicle or construction on the surface;
"cargo"
means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores, accompanied or mishandled baggage;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(a) of Notice No. R. 532, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013]
"cargo aircraft"
means any aircraft, other than a passenger aircraft, which is carrying goods or property;
"carry-on baggage"
means baggage that a passenger carries with him or her on board an aircraft;
"Category A approval"
when used in Part 173, means a flight procedure design approval in terms of which the holder may design, maintain, revise, amend or adapt flight procedures of the same type as the holder's rating;
"Category B approval"
when used in Part 173 means a flight procedure design approval in terms of which a holder may—
(a) | adapt a flight procedure of the same type as the holder's rating, for use by a South African registered aircraft operating at, or in the vicinity of an aerodrome in a foreign country; |
(b) | design, maintain, revise or amend a flight procedure of the same type as a holder's rating for use by South African registered aircraft operating at, or in the vicinity of an off-shore installation located no closer than 30 nautical miles from the nearest land; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(v) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"Category I (CAT I) operation"
means a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 200 feet (60 meters) and with either a visibility of not less than 800 meters or a RVR of not less than 550 meters;
"Category II (CAT II) operation"
means a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 200 feet (60 meters) but not lower than 100 feet (30 meters) and a RVR of not less than 350 meters;
"Category IIIA (CAT lilA) operation"
means a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 100 feet (30 meters) or no decision height, and a RVR of not less than 200 meters;
"Category IIIB (CAT IIIB) operation"
means a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 50 feet (15 meters) or no decision height, and a RVR of less than 200 meters but not less than 50 meters;
"Category IIIC (CAT IIIC) operation"
means a precision instrument approach and landing with no decision height and no RVR limitations;
Note- | For precision instrument approach and landing operations, where decision height (DH) and RVR fall into different categories of operation, the instrument approach and landing operation would be conducted in accordance with the requirements of the most demanding category (e.g. an operation with a DH in the range of CAT II/A but with an RVR in the range of CAT 11/B would be considered a CAT 11/B operation or an operation with a DH in the range of CAT II but with an RVR in the range of CAT I would be considered a CAT II operation). |
"catering stores"
means items other than catering supplies associated with passenger in-flight services such as newspapers, magazines, head phones, audio and video tapes, pillow and blankets, and amenity kits;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(h) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"catering supplies"
means food beverages other dry stores and associated equipment used on board an aircraft;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(h) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"cause"
for the purpose of Part 12, means action, omission, event, condition or any combination thereof, which led to an accident or incident;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(d) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"ceiling"
means the height above the surface of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20 000 feet covering more than half the sky;
"certificate of airworthiness"
means the certificate of airworthiness referred to in Article 31 of the Convention, issued in terms of Subpart 8 of Part 21 of the Regulations, and includes an authority to fly issued in terms of Subpart 2 of Part 24;
"certificate of approval"
means a certificate issued in terms of Part 108 to a person approved to accept, store, handle and tender goods for the carriage by air;
"certificate of fitness"
means the document issued to certify the acceptance of the applicant as being regarded as medically fit for appropriate flight duties;
"certificate of proficiency"
means a certificate issued in terms of Part 108 to a natural person to certify that its holder has successfully completed the initial or refresher security training;
"certification"
means formal evaluation and confirmation by or on behalf of the appropriate authority that a person possesses the necessary competencies to perform assigned functions to an acceptable level as defined by the appropriate authority;
"certify as airworthy (to)"
means to certify that an aircraft or any part thereof complies with current airworthiness requirements;
"changeover point"
means the point at which an aircraft navigating on an ATS route segment defined by reference to VHF omnidirectional radio ranges is expected to transfer its primary navigational reference from the facility behind the aircraft to the next facility ahead of the aircraft;
Note- | Changeover points are established to provide the optimum balance in respect of signal strength and quality between facilities at all levels to be used and to ensure a common source of azimuth guidance for all aircraft operating along the same portion of a route segment. |
"check-in baggage"
means baggage that a passenger hands in when checking in for a flight and that is supposed to be carried in a cargo compartment of the aircraft on which the passenger is travelling;
"child"
means a passenger who has reached his or her second but not his or her twelfth birthday;
"circling approach"
means an extension of an instrument approach procedure which provides for visual circling of the aerodrome prior to landing;
"Class A airspace"
means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of regulation 172.02.2;
"Class A GNSS equipment"
means GNSS equipment incorporating both the GNSS sensor and navigation capability, including RAIM:
(a) | Class A1 - en-route, terminal and non-precision approach other than localiser, navigation capability; |
(b) | Class A2 - en-route and terminal navigation capability only; |
"Class A helicopter-load combination"
means a helicopter-load combination in which the external load cannot move freely, or be jettisoned, and which does not extend below the landing gear;
"Class B airspace"
means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of regulation 172.02.2;
"Class B GNSS equipment"
means GNSS equipment consisting of a GNSS sensor, which provides data to an integrated navigation system:
(a) | Class 81 - en-route, terminal and non-precision approach, other than localiser, navigation capability; |
(b) | Class 82 - en-route, and terminal navigation capability only, providing RAIM; |
(c) | Class 83 - en-route, terminal and non-precision approach, other than localiser, which equipment requires the integrated navigation system to provide a level of GPS integrity equivalent to that provided by RAIM; |
(d) | Class 84 - en-route and terminal navigation capability only, which equipment requires the integrated navigation system to provide a level of GPS integrity equivalent to that provided by RAIM; |
"Class B helicopter-load combination"
means a helicopter-load combination in which the external load is capable of being jettisoned and which is lifted free of land or water during the helicopter external-load operation;
"Class C airspace"
means that portion of the airspace classified as such in terms of Regulation 172.02.2;
"Class C GNSS equipment"
means GNSS equipment consisting of a GNSS sensor that provides data to an integrated navigation system that in turn provides guidance to an autopilot or flight director in order to reduce Flight Technical Error (FTE):
(a) | Class C1 - en-route, terminal and non-precision approach, other than localiser, navigation capability, providing RAIM; |
(b) | Class C2 - en-route and terminal navigation capability only, providing RAIM; |
(c) | Class C3 - en-route, terminal and non-precision approach, other than localiser, which equipment requires the integrated navigation system to provide a level of GPS integrity equivalent to that provided by RAIM; |
(d) | Class C4 - en-route and terminal capability only, which equipment requires the integrated navigation system to provide a level of GPS integrity equivalent to that provided by RAIM; |
"Class C helicopter-load combination"
means a helicopter-load combination in which the external load is capable of being jettisoned and which remains in contact with land or water during the helicopter external-load operation;
"Class B airspace"
means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of regulation 172.02.2;
"Class B GNSS equipment"
means GNSS equipment consisting of a GNSS sensor, which provides data to an integrated navigation system:
(a) | Class 81 - en-route, terminal and non-precision approach, other than localiser, navigation capability; |
(b) | Class 82 - en-route, and terminal navigation capability only, providing RAIM; |
(c) | Class 83 - en-route, terminal and non-precision approach, other than localiser, which equipment requires the integrated navigation system to provide a level of GPS integrity equivalent to that provided by RAIM; |
(d) | Class 84 - en-route and terminal navigation capability only, which equipment requires the integrated navigation system to provide a level of GPS integrity equivalent to that provided by RAIM; |
"Class B helicopter-load combination"
means a helicopter-load combination in which the external load is capable of being jettisoned and which is lifted free of land or water during the helicopter external-load operation;
"Class C airspace"
means that portion of the airspace classified as such in terms of Regulation 172.02.2;
"Class C GNSS equipment"
means GNSS equipment consisting of a GNSS sensor that provides data to an integrated navigation system that in turn provides guidance to an autopilot or flight director in order to reduce Flight Technical Error (FTE):
(a) | Class C1 - en-route, terminal and non-precision approach, other than localiser, navigation capability, providing RAIM; |
(b) | Class C2 - en-route and terminal navigation capability only, providing RAIM; |
(c) | Class C3 - en -route, terminal and non-precision approach, other than localiser, which equipment requires the integrated navigation system to provide a level of GPS integrity equivalent to that provided by RAIM; |
(d) | Class C4 - en-route and terminal capability only, which equipment requires the integrated navigation system to provide a level of GPS integrity equivalent to that provided by RAIM; |
"Class C helicopter-load combination"
means a helicopter-load combination in which the external load is capable of being jettisoned and which remains in contact with land or water during the helicopter external-load operation;
"Class D airspace"
means that portion of the airspace classified as such in terms of Regulation 172.02.2;
"Class D helicopter-load combination"
means a helicopter-load combination, other than a Class A, Class B or Class C helicopter-load combination, which has been approved by the Director for a specific helicopter external-load operation;
"Class E airspace"
means that portion of the airspace classified as such in terms of Regulation 172.02.2;
"Class F airspace"
means that portion of the airspace classified as such in terms of Regulation 172.02.2;
"Class G airspace"
means that portion of the airspace classified as such in terms of Regulation 172.02.2;
"Class I product"
means a complete aircraft, aircraft engine, RPS, or a propeller, which has been type certificated or is identical to a product type certificated in accordance with the provisions of these regulations;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(g) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"Class II product"
means—
(a) | a major component of a Class I product, including wings, fuselages, empennage assemblies, landing gears, power transmissions, control surfaces and installed equipment, the failure of which will jeopardise the safety of a Class I product; or |
(b) | a part, material or appliance, approved and manufactured under the TSO system as prescribed in subpart 12 of Part 21; |
"Class III product"
means any part or component which is not a Class I or a Class II product ;
"clearance delivery service"
means a service specifically dedicated to the issuing of air traffic control clearances to pilots on behalf of one or more ATSUs;
"clearance limit"
means the point to which an aircraft or vehicle is granted an air traffic control clearance;
"close corporation"
means a close corporation as defined in section 1 of the Close Corporations Act, 1984 (Act No. 69 of 1984);
"cloudbreak / breakcloud procedure"
means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, to a point at which visual contact with the surface may be made and from which a landing or circling approach can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en-route obstacle criteria apply;
"cloud ceiling"
means the height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud situated below 20 000 feet and covering more than half the sky;
"cloud of operational significance"
means a cloud with the height of cloud base below 5 000 ft or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, or a cumulonimbus cloud or a towering cumulus cloud at any height;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(h) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"co-authority dispatch"
means the shared responsibility, between the PIC and the flight dispatcher in a Type A or B operational control system, for decisions respecting the OFP prior to acceptance of the OFP by the PIC;
"COMAT"
means operator material carried on an operator’s aircraft for the operator’s own purposes;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"Combined Vision System (CVS)"
means a system to display images from a combination of an enhanced vision systems (EVS) and synthetic vision systems (SVS);
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"command and control C2 Link"
means data link between a remotely piloted aircraft and a remote pilot station for the purposes of managing a flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(j) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"command and control link"
[Definition deleted by regulation 1(i) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"commercial air transport helicopter''
means a helicopter engaged in a commercial air transport operation;
"commercial air transport operation"
means an aircraft operation involving transportation of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(w) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"commercial air transport operator"
means the provider of a commercial air transport operation;
"communication failure procedure"
means a procedure as published in the AIP;
"communication link"
means a digital or analogue data link to transfer voice or data between the remote crew, air traffic control, airspace users and other data users;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(d) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"company"
means a company as defined in section 1 of the Companies Act, 2008;
"competency"
means a dimension of human performance that is used to reliably predict successful performance on the job and such competency is manifested and observed through behaviours that demonstrate the relevant knowledge, skills and attitudes to carry out activities or tasks under specified conditions;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(k) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"Competency-based training and assessment"
means training and assessment that are characterized by a performance orientation, emphasis on standards of performance and their measurement, and the development of training to the specified performance standards;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(l) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"competency check"
means a check carried out for the maintenance of competency of a pilot licence;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"competency element"
means an action that constitutes a task that has a triggering event and a terminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable outcome;
"Competency standard"
means a level of performance that is defined as acceptable when assessing whether or not competency has been achieved;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(m) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"competency unit"
means a discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements;
"complex aeroplane"
means an aircraft that has a retractable landing gear, a constant speed propeller and adjustable flaps;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"compliance"
means a state of complying with those requirements mandated through regulation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(x) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"composite structures or components"
means aircraft components which are manufactured of fibres embedded in a polymer matrix;
"condition"
means, a condition—
(a) | which is clear, reasonable, practically executable and appropriate to the relevant matter; |
(b) | which is calculated to achieve the particular objectives of the relevant empowering provision, read with the Act and these Regulations and any other relevant and appropriate law, and, in general, the promotion of civil aviation safety and the public interest; and |
(c) | which is to be reduced to writing, delivered to the other person, body or institution in a manner ensuring proper receipt thereof, and recorded by the functionary imposing the condition in an appropriate manner; |
"confidence level"
means a probability that the true value of a parameter is within a certain interval around the estimate of its value;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(y) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"configuration"
means a particular combination of the positions of the moveable elements which affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the aircraft;
"configuration deviation list"
means a list established by the organization responsible for the type design with the approval of the State of Design which identifies those external parts of an aircraft type that may be missing at the commencement of a flight, and which contains, where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance correction;
"congested area"
means in relation to a city, town or settlement, any area that is substantially used for residential, commercial or recreational purposes;
"congested hostile environment"
means with respect to helicopter operations, a hostile environment within a congested area;
"consignee"
means the person whose name appears on the airway bill as the party to whom the goods are to be delivered by the air carrier;
"consignment"
means one or more pieces of goods accepted by the air carrier from one shipper at one time and at one address, receipted for in one lot and moving on one airway bill to one consignee at one destination;
"consignor"
means the person whose name appears on the airway bill as the party contracting with the air carrier(s) for carriage of goods;
"contaminated runway"
means a runway of which more than 25 percent of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered with—
(a) | surface water more than three millimetres deep; |
(b) | slush or loose snow, equivalent to more than three millimetres of water; |
(c) | snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up; or |
(d) | ice, including wet ice; |
"Continuous descent final approach (CDFA)"
means a technique, consistent with stabilized approach procedures, for flying the final approach segment of a non-precision instrument approach procedure as a continuous descent, without level-off, from an altitude/height at or above the final approach fix altitude/height to a point approximately 50 ft (15m) above the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare manoeuvre should begin for the type of aircraft flown;
[Definition inserted by section 2(b) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"continuing airworthiness"
means the processes by which an aircraft, RPS,
engine, propeller, or aircraft part complies with the applicable airworthiness requirements and remains in a condition for safe operation throughout its operating life;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(n) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"continuing airworthiness record"
means a record which is related to the continuous airworthiness status of an aircraft, engine, propeller, rotor or associated part;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(z) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"continuity"
in relation to GNSS refers to the capability of the total system, comprising all elements necessary to maintain aircraft position within the defined airspace, to perform its function without non-scheduled interruptions during the intended operation;
"Contracting State"
means a State that is a signatory to the Convention;
"contributing factors"
means actions, omissions, events, conditions, or a combination thereof, which, if eliminated, avoided or absent, would have reduced the probability of the accident or incident occurring, or mitigated the severity of the consequences of the accident or incident;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"control area"
means a controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height above the surface without an upper limit, unless an upper limit is specified as published in an AlP, AIC or NOTAM and designated as a control area;
"controlled aerodrome"
means an aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic;
"controlled airspace"
means an airspace of defined dimensions within which an air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification as prescribed in Regulation 172.02.2;
"controlled environment"
means a classroom learning and, or e-Learning environment which conditions relate to the conduct of an evaluation or knowledge test in terms of a risk matrix;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(aa) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"controlled flight"
means any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance;
"controller-pilot data link communications"
means a means of communication between controller and pilot, using data link for ATC communications;
"control station"
means a point on the ground whose position and elevation is used as a basis for obtaining positions and elevations of other points and includes PACS and SACS established in the vicinity of an airport;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(o) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"control system"
means a system by which the flight path, attitude or propulsive force of an aircraft is changed, including the flight, engine and propeller controls, the related system controls and the associated operating mechanisms;
"control zone"
means as controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to a specified upper limit as published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM;
"conventionally controlled microlight aeroplane"
means an aeroplane that is primarily controlled by manipulating its primary flight control surfaces by conventional methods excluding weight-shift control and of which these maximum take-off mass and other classification parameters are defined in document SA-CATS 24 as technical standard 24.01.2.(5.2);
"conversion process"
means a technology used to convert a feedstock into aviation alternative fuel;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"conveyance by air"
means conveyance in an aircraft in flight;
"co-ordination service"
means a service of co-ordinating the discharge of air traffic service related duties by air traffic service personnel;
"co-pilot"
means a licensed, type-rated pilot required by these Regulations to serve in any piloting capacity other than as PIC, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the purpose of receiving flight instruction;
"co-responsibility dispatch''
means the shared responsibility, between the PIC and the flight dispatcher in a Type A or B operational control system, for decisions respecting the OFP prior to acceptance of the OFP by the PIC;
"corporate aviation operation"
means a non-commercial use of aircraft by, or on behalf of a person for the carriage of passengers or goods as an aid to the conduct of that person's business;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 984, GG 41915, dated 21 September 2018 (Nineteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2018)]
"corporate aviation operating certificate"
means a certificate issued by the Director to authorise a corporate aviation operation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 984, GG 41915, dated 21 September 2018 (Nineteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2018)]
"courier service"
means an operation whereby cargo tendered by one or more consignors are transported as the baggage of a courier passenger on board a scheduled air transport service under normal passenger hold baggage documentation;
"credit"
means recognition of alternate means of prior qualifications;
"crew member"
means a person assigned by an operator to carry out duties onboard an aircraft during a flight, that are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion of the flight, and include task specialists who have been assigned in-flight duties related to a specialized use of the aircraft and have been informed of, and accepted the associated risks thereof;
"crew resource management training"
means training, including the principles of human factors designed to ensure that individual and collective efforts of all crew members on board of an aircraft are co-ordinated for maximum effectiveness;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(bb) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"critical engine(s)"
means any engine whose failure gives the most adverse effect on the aircraft characteristics relative to the case under consideration;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(d) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"critical phases of flight"
includes all ground operations involving taxi, take-off, climb to cruise up to 1 0 000 feet and approach from cruise below 10 000 feet;
"critical surfaces"
with respect to operation in icing conditions, means the wings, control surfaces, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical stabilizers or any other stabilizing surface of an aircraft and, in the case of an aircraft that has rear-mounted engines, includes the upper surface of its fuselage;
"cross country flight"
when used in connection with the acquisition of flight experience required for a pilot licence, means a flight between a point of departure and a point of landing not less than 20 nautical miles apart following a pre-planned route using standard navigation procedures;
"cruise climb"
means an aeroplane cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as the aeroplane mass decreases;
"cruise relief pilot"
means a flight crew member who is assigned to perform pilot tasks during cruise flight, to allow the PIC or a co-pilot to obtain planned rest;
"cruising level"
means a flight level maintained during a significant portion of a flight;
"cull"
includes the selection, counting and herding of game and livestock;
"current flight plan"
means the air traffic service flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent clearances;
"cyber security"
means a technique of protecting computers, networks, data and programmes from unauthorised access or attacks that are aimed for exploitation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(j) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"cyclic redundancy check"
means a mathematical algorithm applied to a digital expression of data that provides a level of assurance against loss or alteration of data;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(cc) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"damp lease"
means an operating lease in terms of which the aircraft is leased with a partial crew;
"damp runway"
means a runway of which the surface is not dry and on which the moisture does not give the runway a shiny appearance;
"danger area"
means an area of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times;
"dangerous goods"
means articles or substances as classified in Document SA-CATS 92 which are capable of posing significant hazard to health, safety, property or environment when conveyed by aircraft;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(dd) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"data accuracy"
means a degree of confidence between an estimated or measured value and a true value;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ee) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"data completeness"
means a degree of confidence that all of the data required to support an intended use is provided for;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ee) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"data format"
means a structure of data elements, records and files arranged to meet standards, specifications or data quality requirements;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ee) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"data integrity"
means a degree of assurance that aeronautical data and its value, has not been lost or altered since the origination or authorised amendment thereof;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ee) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"dangerous goods accident"
means an occurrence associated with and related to the conveyance of dangerous goods by air which results in fatal or serious injury to a person or major damage to property or environment;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(g) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"dangerous goods incident"
means an incident, other than a dangerous goods accident, associated with and related to the conveyance of dangerous goods by air, and for the purposes of Part 92, includes injury to a person, property or environmental damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained or which seriously jeopardises the aircraft or its occupants;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(h) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"data link communications"
means a form of communication intended for the exchange of messages via a data link;
"data link-automatic terminal information service (D-ATIS)"
means the provision of ATIS via data link;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(m) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"data link-VOLMET"
means provision of current METAR, SPECI, TAF, SIGMET, special air-reports not covered by a SIGMET, and where available, AIRMET via data link;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(p) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"date of application"
when used in connection with the issuing, renewal or re-issuing of a licence, certificate or rating, means the date on which the application is received in the prescribed form by the Director;
"data product"
means a data set or data set series that conforms to a data product specification;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"data product specification"
means detailed description of a data set or data series together with additional information that will enable the data set or data series to be created, supplied to and used by another party;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"data quality"
means a degree or level of confidence that the data provided meets the requirements of a data user in terms of accuracy, resolution and integrity or equivalent assurance level, traceability, timeliness, completeness and format;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(q) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"data set"
means identifiable collection of data;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"data set series"
means a collection of data sets sharing the same product specification;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"data timeliness"
means a degree of confidence that data is applicable to a period of its intended use;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ff) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"data traceability"
means a degree that a system or a data product can provide a record of the changes made to that product and thereby enable an audit trail to be followed from an end-user to an originator ;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ff) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"datum"
means any quantity or set of quantities that may serve as reference or basis for the calculation of other quantities;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"day"
means the period of time from 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes after sunset, sunrise and sunset being as given in the publication "Times of Sunrise, Sunset and Local Apparent Noon of the South African Astronomical Observatory'' or in a similar publication issued by a recognised astronomical observatory;
"day off''
for the purposes of an air operator's approved flight time and duty period programme, means a period of not less than 24 consecutive hours free of all duty on behalf of, or contact by the operator. A single day off shall include two local nights. Consecutive days off shall include a further local night for each consecutive day off. A rest period may be included as part of a day off;
Note- | Contact by the operator may be effected by non-intrusive means such as electronic mail but not by any method that could cause a disturbance or disruption to sleep or other rest. |
"decision altitude"
means a specified altitude in a 3D instrument approach operation at which a missed approach shall be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(s) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"decision height"
means a specified height in a 3D instrument approach operation at which a missed approach shall be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established;”;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(s) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"decision altitude/height"
[Definition deleted by regulation 1(r) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"defined point"
with respect to helicopter operations means—
(a) | in relation to a defined point after take-off, the point, within the take-off and initial climb phase, before which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required; and |
(b) | in relation to a defined point before landing, the point, within the approach and landing phase, after which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required; |
"de-icing"
means a procedure by which frost, ice, slush or snow is removed from the aircraft in order to provide clean surfaces;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"de-icing/anti-icing"
means a combination of the procedures de-icing and anti-icing. It may be performed in one or two steps; and
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"de-icing fluid"
means:
(a) heated water;
(b) type 1 fluid;
(c) mixture of water and type 1 fluid;
(d) type II, type III, or type IV fluid; and
(e) mixture of water and type II, type III, or type IV fluid
Note: De-icing fluid is normally applied heated in order to assure maximum efficiency
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"design landing mass"
means the maximum mass of the aircraft at which, for structural design purposes, it is assumed that it will be planned to land;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"design take-off mass"
means the maximum mass at which the aircraft, for structural design purposes, is assumed to be planned to be at the start of the take-off run; and
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"design taxing mass means"
the maximum mass of the aircraft at which structural provision is made for load liable to occur during use of the aircraft on the ground prior to the start of take-off;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"designated aviation medical examiner"
means an aviation medical examiner designated by the Director in terms of regulation 67 .00.4;
"designated examiner"
means an authorised person, designated as such, approved to conduct skill tests and proficiency checks on persons other than pilots in terms of the delegation referred to in section 88 of the Act;
"designated flight examiner"
means an authorised person, designated as such, approved to conduct skill tests and proficiency checks on pilots and such other persons as may be specified in terms of the delegation referred to in section 88 of the Act;
"detect and avoid"
means the capability to see, sense or detect conflicting traffic or other hazards and take the appropriate action;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(d) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"differences training"
means training required to ensure a flight or cabin crew member is proficient on a similar aeroplane type or variant which has significant differences in terms of equipment, configuration or operation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(gg) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"diplomatic bag"
means a package intended for the head of a diplomatic mission or a member of the staff of a diplomatic mission that bears visible marks of its character and contains only documents or articles intended for official use;
"Director of Investigations"
[Definition deleted by regulation 2(o) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"disabled passenger"
means a passenger who is physically or mentally challenged due to illness, injury, congenital malfunction or other temporary or permanent incapacity or disability;
"discrete source damage"
means structural damage of the aeroplane that is likely to result from: impact with a bird, uncontained fan blade failure, uncontained engine failure, uncontained high-energy rotating machinery failure or similar causes;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"disembarkation"
means the leaving of an aircraft after landing, except by flight crew or passengers continuing on the next stage of the same through-flight;
"disinfection"
means a procedure whereby health measures are taken to control or kill, by direct exposure to chemical or physical agents, infectious agents on a human or animal body, in or on affected parts of aircraft, baggage, cargo, goods or containers;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 43831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"disinsection"
means a procedure whereby health measures are taken to control or kill insects present in aircraft, baggage, cargo, containers, goods and mail;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 43831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"dormancy"
means not active or growing but able to become active later;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(hh) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"down-link"
means the direct or indirect communication link from the RPA;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"dry lease"
means an operating lease in terms of which only the aircraft is leased without crew and the lessee has legal possession of the aircraft;
"dry operating mass"
means the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation, excluding all usable fuel and traffic load, and includes—
(a) | flight crew members and flight crew member baggage; |
(b) | catering and removable passenger service equipment; and |
(c) | portable water and lavatory chemicals; |
"dry runway"
means a dry runway which is neither wet nor contaminated, and includes those paved runways which have been specially prepared with grooves or porous pavement and maintained to retain "effectively dry" braking action even when moisture is present;
"DTO approved training programme"
means a document established by a DTO, describing in detail training course provided by that DTO as approved by a competent Authority;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ii) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"dual instruction time"
in terms of flight training shall mean flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from a properly authorized pilot on board the aircraft;
"duty"
means any task that a crew member or ATS personnel is required by an operator or ANSP to perform, including, as the case may be, time-in-position, flight duty, administrative work, training, positioning and standby;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"duty period"
means a period starting when an ATS personnel or a crew member commence a duty and includes time when a crew member flies in an aeroplane at the behest of his or her employer, and ending when that person is free from all duties;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(l) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"EDTO critical fuel"
means the fuel quantity necessary to fly to an en-route alternate aerodrome considering, at the most critical point on the route, the most limiting system failure;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"EDTO-significant system"
means an aeroplane system whose failure or degradation could adversely affect the safety particular to an EDTO flight, or whose continued functioning is specifically important to the safe flight and landing of an aeroplane during an EDTO diversion;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"e-learning"
means the use of technology to deliver a broad array of training methods, which includes internet training or virtual training for admission into on-line examinations for the purposes of improving performance;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(jj) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"electronic flight bag"
means an electronic information system,comprised of equipment and applications, for flight crew or cabin crew which allows for storing, updating, displaying and processing of EFB functions to support flight operations or duties;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"elevated heliport"
means a heliport located on a raised structure on land;
"elevated helistop"
means a helistop located on a raised structure;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(t) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"ellipsoid height (Geodetic height)"
means height related to the reference ellipsoid, measured along the ellipsoidal outer normal through the point in question;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(p) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"embarkation"
means the boarding of an aircraft for the purpose of commencing a flight, except by such flight crew or passengers who have embarked on a previous stage of the same through-flight;
"emergency equipment procedures training"
means training given to an aircraft crew member for familiarisation with location, inspection, testing and use of emergency equipment required to be carried on board an aircraft and includes specific training required to ensure passenger safety;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(kk) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"emergency flotation equipment"
means equipment carried by helicopters which, when activated, enables the helicopter to land and float on water;
"emergency locator transmitter''
means equipment which broadcast distinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending on application, may either sense a crash and operate automatically or may be manually activated. An ELT may be any of the following:
(a) | Automatic fixed ELT (ELT(AF)). An automatically activated ELT which is permanently attached to an aircraft; |
(b) | Automatic portable ELT (ELT(AP)). An automatically activated ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft but readily removable from the aircraft; |
(c) | Automatic deployable ELT (ELT(AD)). An ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft and which is automatically deployed and activated by impact, and, in some cases, also by hydrostatic sensors. Manual deployment is also provided; or |
(d) | Survival ELT (ELT(S)). An ELT which is removable from an aircraft, stowed so as to facilitate its ready use in an emergency, and manually activated by survivors; |
"emergency parachute"
means a parachute assembly designed and intended to be used by persons in an emergency;
"emission charge"
means any voluntary change in type of design of the aircraft or engine which may increase fuel venting or engine emission;
"enforcement officer"
means an authorised officer, inspector or authorised person;
"engine"
means a unit used or intended to be used for aircraft propulsion which consists of at least those components and equipment necessary for functioning and control, but excludes the propeller/rotors (if applicable);
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(g) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"Engineering Designated Examiner"
means a designated examiner in relation to Part 66 for licensing purpose
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(u) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"enhanced vision system" (EVS)
means a system to display electronic real-time images of the external scene achieved through the use of image sensors;";
Note - EVS does not include night vision imaging systems (NVIS);
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(g) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"en-route alternate aerodrome"
means an aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land after experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition while en-route;
"en-route phase"
means that part of the flight from the end of the take-off and initial climb phase to the commencement of the approach and landing phase;
"en route safe altitude"
means an altitude which will ensure a separation height of at least—
(a) | 1 000 feet above the highest terrain or obstacle where the height of such terrain or obstacle does not exceed 5 000 feet above sea level within five nautical miles of the aircraft in flight; or |
(b) | 2 000 feet above the highest terrain or obstacle located within five nautical miles of the aircraft in flight where the height of such terrain or obstacle exceeds 5 000 feet above sea level; |
"ensure"
in relation to any person, body or institution and in respect of any matter, activity, process, condition, requirement or other person, or anything else, means to take, considering the nature and context of the provision requiring the ensuring, and any other appropriate legal provisions, in good faith, all necessary, and all reasonably incidental and practically executable preliminary, precedent and precautionary steps in order to be able and prepared to take, and afterwards to take, all necessary and reasonably incidental and practically executable steps, to substantially achieve the clear particular objectives of the provision requiring the ensuring and, in general, the promotion of civil aviation safety and the public interest;
"error"
as used in the context of operating an aircraft, means an action or inaction by the flight crew that leads to deviations from organisational or flight crew intentions or expectations;
"error management"
means the process of detecting and responding to errors, as defined, with countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors, and mitigate the probability of further errors or undesired aircraft conditions;
"estimated off-block time"
means the estimated time at which the aircraft will commence movement associated with departure;
"estimated time of arrival"—
(a) | in respect of IFR flights, means the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced or, if no navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome, the time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome; and |
(b) | in respect of VFR flights, means the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome; |
"ETOPS en-route alternate"
means a suitable and appropriate alternate aerodrome at which an aeroplane would be able to land after experiencing an engine shutdown or other abnormal or emergency condition while en-route in an ETOPS operation;
"evaluator"
means a generic term used in the context of an approved training organisation to describe a person who is qualified, authorised and assigned to carry out specific assessment, checking, testing and auditing duties to determine that all the required standards of performance have been achieved;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ll) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"examiner"
means variously a DFE, Designated Examiner or Official Flight Examiner;
"expected approach time"
means the time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for a landing;
"experimental/prototype test flight"
means a flight for the purpose of experimental, development or investigative test flying for the issuing of an initial certificate of airworthiness for such aircraft;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(q) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"express air cargo"
means particular time-sensitive shipments, requiring reliable, time measured transport using simple documentation or an air waybill;
"extended diversion time operations (EDTO)"
means any operations by an aeroplane with two or more turbine engines where the diversion time to an en-route alternate aerodrome is greater than threshold time established by the State of the Operator;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(d) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"extended flight over water"
means a flight over water at a specified distance or time away from land suitable for making an emergency landing that necessitates the carriage of specified life-saving equipment;
Notes–
(a) | See the respective Part for specified time, distance and life-saving equipment requirements; and |
(b) | Also known as 'long range over-water flight' or 'extended over-water flight'. |
"extended range operations"
means flights conducted over a route that contains a point further than one hour flying time at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate aerodrome;
"extended range operations with twin-engine aircraft"
means flights conducted with a twin-engine aircraft, over a route that contains a point further than one hour flying time at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate aerodrome;
"extended visual line-of-sight"
means an operation below 400 ft above ground level in which an observer, maintains direct and unaided visual contact with the remotely piloted aircraft at a distance not exceeding 1000 m from the pilot;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"extended visual line-of-sight operation"
means an operation below 400 ft above ground level, in which an observer assists in the direct unaided visual contact with the RPA, in order to facilitate separation and collision avoidance requirements;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"facility''
for the purpose of Part 172, means any facility used for providing an air traffic control service;
"factor of safety"
means a design factor used to provide for the possibility of loads greater than those assumed, and for uncertainties in design and fabrication;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"familiarisation training"
means training required to ensure a flight or cabin crew member is proficient on similar aeroplane types or variants which have only minor differences in terms of equipment, configuration or operation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(mm) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"fatigue"
means a physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability resulting from sleep loss, extended wakefulness, mental or physical activity, circadian phase or workload that may impair a person's alertness and ability to safely operate an aircraft or perform safety related operational duties;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(m) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"fatigue Risk Management System (FRMS)"
means a data-driven means of continuously monitoring and managing fatigue-related safety risks, based upon scientific principles and knowledge as well as operational experience that aims to ensure relevant personnel are performing at adequate levels of alertness;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(j) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"feedstock"
means a type of unprocessed raw material used for the production of aviation alternative fuel;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"filed flight plan"
means the flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot or a designated representative, without any subsequent changes;
"final approach"
with respect to IFR operations means that part of an instrument approach procedure which commences at the specified final approach fix, or where such fix is not specified;
(a) | At the end of the last procedure turn, baseturn or inbound of a racetrack procedure, if specified; or |
(b) | At the point of interception of the last track specified in the approach procedure; and |
ends at a point in the vicinity of an aerodrome from which—
(i) | A landing can be made; or |
(ii) | A missed approach procedure is initiated; |
"final approach and take-off area"
means a defined area over which the final phase of the approach manoeuvre to hover or landing is completed and from which the take-off manoeuvre is commenced. Where the final approach and take-off area is to be used by performance Class 1 helicopters, the defined area includes the rejected take-off area available;
"final approach fix to point"
means that fix or point of an instrument approach procedure where the final approach segment commences;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(h) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"final approach segment"
means that segment of an instrument approach procedure in which alignment and descent for landing are accomplished;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"financial or capital lease"
means an arrangement in terms of which the aircraft is leased from a bank or other financial institution (lessor), whereby the aircraft gives the outward appearance of ownership by the operator (lessee), and is usually registered in the State of the Operator;
"finding"
means a conclusion by the operator's audit personnel that demonstrates nonconformity with a specific standard;
"fire resistant"
means the capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame for a period of 5 minutes;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(l) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"first aid"
means first aid appropriate to the type of aircraft, and includes—
(a) | the recognition and treatment of food poisoning; |
(b) | the recognition and treatment of contamination of the skin and eyes by aviation fuel and other fluids; |
(c) | the recognition and treatment of hypoxia and hyperventilation; |
(d) | first aid associated with survival training, appropriate to the routes to be operated; and |
(e) | other related aeromedical aspects; |
"fireproof"
means the capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame for a period of 15 minutes;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"flight"
means from the moment an aircraft commences its take-off until the moment it completes its next landing;
"flight crew member"
means a licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft during a flight duty period;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(v) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"flight data analysis"
means the process of analysing recorded flight data in order to improve the safety of flight operations;
"flight deck"
means the area in an aircraft in which is located the flight crew member stations from which the operation of the aircraft is controlled and observer seats, if installed, and in which access is normally restricted to flight crew members only;
"flight documentation"
when used in meteorological context, means written, printed, or electronic documents, including charts or forms, containing meteorological information for a flight
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(w) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"flight duty period"
means any time during which a person operates in an aircraft as a member of its flight crew and it starts when the flight crew member is required by an operator to report for a flight, and finishes at on-chocks or engines off, on the final sector for that flight crew member;
"flight information centre"
means an ATSU established to provide flight information services and alerting services;
"flight information region"
means an airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information services and alerting services are provided;
"flight information service"
means a service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights;
"flight instructor"
means a pilot who is the holder of the appropriate flight instructor rating;
"flight level"
means a surface of constant atmospheric pressure, expressed as a number of hundreds of feet, relating to a specific pressure datum of 1 013,2 hectopascals and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals;
"flight manual"
means a manual, attached to the certificate of airworthiness, containing the limitations within which an aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and the instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft;
"flight operations officer"
means a person designated and certified by the operator to engage in the control and supervision of flight operations who is qualified to support, brief and/or assist the PIC in the safe conduct of the flight;
"flight plan"
means specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft;
"flight procedures trainer"
See 'Flight Simulator Training Device' ;
"flight recorder"
means any type of recorder installed in an aircraft for the purpose of complementing accident/incident investigation;
"flight release"
means the formal authorization for the PIC to proceed with a flight in accordance with an OFP signed by both the PIC and the person responsible for operational control over the flight;
"flight safety documentation system"
means a set of inter-related documentation established by the operator, compiling and organizing information necessary for safe flight and ground operations, and comprising, as a minimum, the operations manual and the operator's maintenance control manual;
"flight simulator training device"
means any one of the following three types of apparatus in which flight conditions are simulated on the ground:
(a) | a flight simulator, which provides an accurate representation of the flight deck of a particular aircraft type, to the extent that the mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraft systems, control functions, the normal environment of flight crew members, and the performance and flight characteristics of that type of aircraft are realistically simulated; |
(b) | a flight procedures trainer, which provides a realistic flight deck environment, and which simulates instrument responses, simple control functions of mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraft systems, and the performance and flight characteristics of aircraft of a particular class; |
(c) | a basic instrument flight trainer, which is equipped with appropriate instruments, and which simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in flight in instrument flight conditions; |
"flight simulator qualification certificate"
means a certificate issued under Part 60 of the regulations for a qualified flight simulator;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"flight simulator qualification, for a flight simulator"
means a qualification of the flight simulator under Part 60 of the regulations;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"flight time"
means—
(a) | for operation of an aeroplane, the total time from a moment an aeroplane first moves for the purposes of taking off until a moment it finally comes to rest at the end of a flight; |
Note– | Flight time as defined here is synonymous with the term “block to block” time or “chock to chock” time in general usage which is measured from the time an aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off until it finally stops at the end of a flight. |
(b) | for helicopter operation, a total time from a moment a helicopter’s rotor blades start turning until a moment such helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of a flight and the rotor blades are stopped; |
(c) | for glider operation, the total time occupied in flight, whether being towed or not, from a moment a glider first moves for a purpose of taking off until a moment it comes to rest at the end of a flight; and |
(d) | for RPAS, the total time from a moment a C2 Link is established between a remote pilot station and an RPA for the purpose of taking off or from a moment a remote pilot receives control following a handover until a moment such remote pilot completes a handover of a C2 Link between an RPS and an RPA is terminated at the end of a flight |
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(x) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"flight training device qualification"
[Definition deleted by regulation 2(nn) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"flight training device qualification certificate"
[Definition deleted by regulation 2(nn) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"flight visibility"
means the visibility forward from the cockpit of aircraft in flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017)]
"flight watch"
means—
(a) | in respect of flight time and duty period regulations, a period of time during which a flight crew member is required to check with the operator at specified times as to whether his or her services as a flight crew member will be required and, should this be the case, will report for duty at the time then specified; and |
(b) | in respect of operational control of commercial air transport aircraft, the process by which a flight operations officer provides flight following service to a flight, and provides any operational information as may be requested by the PIC or deemed necessary by the flight operations officer. Meteorological information provided to the PIC by the flight operations officer may include analysis or interpretation; |
"flight watch system"
means an operator's equipment, facilities and personnel which enable that operator to exercise operational control over a flight in progress via direct and timely communications with that flight;
"follow-on GNSS equipment"
refers to equipment that has already received an initial airworthiness certification;
"FORc"
means an aeroplane operator’s total final offsetting requirements in the given CORSIA compliance period;”;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(y) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"foreign air operator"
means any operator, other than a South African air operator, which undertakes on a scheduled or charter basis, whether directly or indirectly, by lease or any other arrangement, to engage in commercial air transport operations within the borders or airspace of South Africa;
"foreign ATO"
means an aviation training organisation approved by an appropriate authority of a State other than the Republic;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(oo) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"foreign authority''
means the authority of a foreign State that issues the air operator certificate and oversees the operations of its air operators;
"foreign state aircraft"
means any aircraft owned or operated by any State other than the Republic of South Africa;
"formation flight"
means two or more aircraft flying in the same general direction at a distance not exceeding 1 km (0.5 NM) laterally and longitudinally and 30 m (100 ft) vertically from each other;
"free balloon"
means a non-power-driven, lighter-than-air aircraft in free flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"fuel uplift"
means measurement of fuel provided by fuel supplier, as documented in the fuel delivery notes or invoices for each flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(o) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"full flight simulator"
means a full size replica of a specific type or make, model and series aeroplane flight deck, including the assemblage of all equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent the aeroplane in ground and flight operations, a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view and a force cuing motion system;
"general aviation operation"
means an aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport, air ambulance or aerial work operation;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(r) of notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"geodetic datum"
means a minimum set of parameters required to define location and orientation of the local reference system with respect to the global reference system/frame;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(j) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"geodetic distance"
means shortest distance between any two points on a mathematically defined ellipsoidal surface;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(s) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"glass cockpit"
means any of the primary instruments in an aircraft cock pit that features digital flight instrument displays, such as LCD screens and digital gauges;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(pp) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"glider"
means a heavier-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider, that is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its fixed, lifting surfaces, and whereof free flight does not depend on an engine;
"GNSS"
means a worldwide position and time determination system that includes one or more satellite constellations, aircraft receivers and system integrity monitoring, augmented as necessary to support the RNP for the intended operation;
"GNSS incident"
refers to an incident involving but not limited to, the malfunctioning of equipment, signals or human performance in the operation of a GNSS system;
"GNSS sensor"
refers to a single GNSS unit used for navigation within a flight management system;
"grid point data in digital form"
means a computer processed meteorological data for a set of regularly spaced points on a chart, for transmission from a meteorological computer to another computer in a code form suitable for automated use;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(z) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"ground handling"
means any service, other than air traffic services, required by an aircraft on arrival at, and departure from an aerodrome;
"ground visibility"
means the visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems;
"gyroglider"
means a non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, supported in flight by the reactions of the air on one or more rotors which rotates freely on substantially vertical axes;
"gyroplane"
means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, supported in flight by the reactions of the air on one or more rotors which rotates freely on substantially vertical axes;
"handicapped passenger"
means a passenger who is physically or mentally handicapped due to illness, injury, congenital malfunction or other temporary or permanent incapacity or disability;
"handover"
means—
(a) | an act of transferring control, including associated responsibility from one controlling entity or person to another; or |
(b) | an act of passing piloting control from one remote pilot station to another;”; |
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(aa) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"hang-glider"
means a non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft capable of being carried, foot launched, and landed solely by the energy and use of the pilot's legs, having—
(a) | a rigid primary structure with pilot weight shift as the primary method of control; or |
(b) | a rigid primary structure with movable aerodynamic surfaces as the primary method of control in at least two axes, and for the purposes of Parts 24, 94 and 96 includes a powered hang-glider; |
"hang-glider aero tow rating or endorsement"
means a rating issued to the pilot of a hang-glider qualifying him or her to be aero-tugged;
"hazard"
means any source or condition of potential damage or harm to an aircraft or its occupants;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(b) of Notice No. R. 3169, GG 48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Fifth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"heading"
means the direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed, usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic, compass or grid);
"Head of Training"
means an individual responsible for an organisation's activities, policies, practices and procedures while ensuring the continued maintenance of a training organisation's approval status;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(qq) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"head-up display"
means a display system that presents flight information into the pilot's forward external field of view;
"heavier-than-air aircraft"
means an aircraft deriving its lift in flight mainly from aerodynamic forces;
"height"
means—
(a) | the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from a specific datum; |
(b) | the vertical dimension of an object; |
"helicopter"
means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight mainly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes;
"helicopter crewman"
means a person, other than a member of the flight crew, who is charged with duties by the operator essential to the helicopter operation when engaged in winching or external-load operations or who acts as a load master;
"helicopter-load combination"
means the combination of a helicopter and an external-load, including the external-load attaching means;
"helicopter sling load"
means the externally carriage, lowering or picking up of a load, cargo, or passengers by means of a bucket, net, harness, sling or stretcher, suspended beneath the helicopter;
"helicopter winching"
means the external lowering or picking-up of a load, cargo or person by means of a hoist fitted to the side of a helicopter;
"helideck"
means a heliport located on a floating or 'fixed off-shore structure;
"heliport"
means an aerodrome and any defined area or a structure, intended or designed to be used either wholly or partly for the landing, departure and surface movement of helicopters;
"heliport operating minima"
means the limits of usability of a heliport for—
(a) | take-off, expressed in terms of RVR and/or visibility and, if necessary, cloud conditions; |
(b) | landing in precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or RVR and DA/H as appropriate to the category of the operation; |
(c) | landing in approach and landing operations with vertical guidance, expressed in terms of visibility and/or RVR and DA/H; and |
(d) | landing in non-precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or RVR, MDA/H and, if necessary, cloud conditions; |
"helistop"
means a minimally developed defined area intended to be used for arrival and departure of a helicopter without auxiliary facilities;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(bb) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"high performance aircraft"
means an aircraft with a maximum operating limit speed (Vmo) in excess of an indicated air speed of 175 knots or any aircraft classified by the Director as a high-performance aircraft;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(u) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"high-risk cargo or mail"
means a consignment which is indicated through specific intelligence that it poses a threat to civil aviation or shows signs of tampering that give rise to suspicion;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(rr) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"home base"
means a location assigned by an air service operator to a crew member, from where a crew member normally starts and ends a duty period or a series of duty periods; and where. under normal circumstances an air service operator is not responsible for accommodation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(a) of Notice No. 5008, GG50880, dated 28 June 2024 (Twenty-Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2024)]
"hostile environment"
with respect to helicopter operations, means an environment in which—
(a) | a safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the surface and surrounding environment are inadequate; |
(b) | the helicopter occupants cannot be adequately protected from the elements; |
(c) | search and rescue response/capability is not provided consistent with anticipated exposure; or |
(d) | there is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or property on the ground; |
"human factors principles"
means the principles which apply to aeronautical design, certification, training, operations and maintenance of aircraft, and which seek safe interface between the human and other system components by proper consideration to human performance;
"human performance"
means the capabilities and limitations of a human being that have an impact on the safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations and services;
"ICAO Designator"
means a code assigned by ICAO, as used in a flight plan and associated with international aeronautical telecommunications services;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ss) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"ICAO competency framework"
means a competency framework, developed by ICAO, consisting of a selected group of competencies for a given aviation discipline where each competency has an associated description and observable behaviours;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(cc) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"ICAO flight plan form"
refers to the International Civil Aviation Organisation flight plan form (MOT/AC 1565);
"ICAO meteorological information exchange model"
means a data model for representing aeronautical meteorological information;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(dd) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"IFR flight"
means a flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(g) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"imported"
in the context of Part 24 means brought into the Republic by any means for the purpose of having the aircraft put on the South African Civil Aircraft Register;
"import test flight"
means a flight tor the purpose of the initial validation or rendering effective of a certificate of airworthiness previously issued by another airworthiness authority, for an aircraft imported into the Republic as prescribed by the Director'
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(v) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"incident"
means an occurrence, other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of aircraft operations;
"individual"
for the purpose of Part 185 includes a natural person, a partnership and a sole proprietorship;
"induction training"
means a company- or operator-specific generic training covering a number of subjects as prescribed by regulation where certain subjects may be presented only as a generic, introductory overview and where a company or an operator determines it would be more appropriate to provide amplified training in connection with a specific aeroplane type or operational environment;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(tt) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"Industry codes of practice"
means guidance material developed by an industry body, for a particular sector of the aviation industry to comply with the requirements of the International Civil Aviation Organization's Standards and Recommended Practices, other aviation safety requirements and the best practices deemed appropriate;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(m) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"infant"
means a person who has not reached his or her second birthday;
"initial approach fix"
means the fix determined in terms of instrument approach procedures which identifies the beginning of the initial approach segment;
"initial approach segment"
means that segment of an instrument approach procedure between the initial approach fix and the intermediate approach fix, or where applicable, the final approach fix or point;
"initial test flight"
means the first flight of an aircraft for the purpose of the initial validation of an experimental prototype or first of type or amateur built aircraft to be registered on the South African aircraft register;
"inspection"
means that part of the maintenance by which an aircraft or aircraft component is being examined to establish conformity with an approved standard;
"instructions for safe operation and continued airworthiness"
means instructions prepared by the holder of a type certificate for a product, comprising descriptive data and accomplishment instructions;
"instrument approach and landing operation"
means an approach and landing using instruments for navigation and guidance based on an instrument approach procedure, classified as CAT I, CAT II and CAT IIIA, CAT IIIB, and CAT IIIC , non-precision or precision approach and landing operations, and includes:
(a) | a two dimensional (2D) instrument approach operation, using lateral navigation guidance only; and |
(b) | a three dimensional (3D) instrument approach operation, using both lateral and vertical navigation guidance; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"instrument approach procedure"
means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route, to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en route obstacle criteria apply. Instrument approach procedures are classified as follows—
(a) | non-precision approach procedure. An instrument approach procedure designed for 2D instrument approach operations Type A; |
Note: - Non-precision approach procedures may be flown using a continuous descent final approach technique (CDFA). CDFA with advisory VNAV guidance calculated by on-board equipment are considered 3D instrument approach operations. CDFA with manual calculation of the required rate of descent are considered 2D instrument approach operations.
(b) | approach procedure with vertical guidance. A performance-based navigation instrument approach procedure designed for 3D instrument approach operations Type A ; or |
(c) | precision approach procedure. An instrument approach procedure based on navigation systems (ILS, MLS, GLS and SBAS CAT I) designed for 3D instrument approach operations Type A or B ; |
Note- | Lateral and vertical guidance refers to the guidance provided either by— |
(i) | a ground-based radio navigation aid; or |
(ii) | computer-generated navigation data from ground-based, space-based, self-contained navigation aids or a combination of these. |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(l) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"instrument flight time"
means a time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft, or a remote pilot is piloting a remotely piloted aircraft, solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(ee) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"instrument ground time"
means time during which a pilot is practicing on the ground simulated instrument flight in a FSTD approved by the Director;
"instrument meteorological conditions"
means atmospheric conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, or ceiling, less than the minima prescribed for VFR flight in regulations 91.06.21 and 91.06.22;
"instrument time"
means instrument flight time or instrument ground time, as defined;
"integrated training"
as used in the context of flight training, means training, conducted under special curricula and supervision approved by a Contracting State, that, in the case of flight crew members, is conducted within an approved training organisation, and allows for reduced flight time experience for the issuance of a licence;
"integrated aeronautical information package"
means a package in paper, electronic or digital form which consists of the following elements:
(a) | an AlP including amendment service; |
(b) | supplements to the AIP; |
(c) | NOTAM and PIB; |
(d) | AIC; and |
(e) | Checklists and lists of valid NOTAMs; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(w) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"Integrated survival suit"
means a survival suit which meets the combined requirements of the survival suit and life jacket;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(h) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"integrity"
in relation to GNSS, refers to the ability of a system to provide timely warnings to users when the system performance has exceeded predetermined safe limitations and should not be used for navigation, and when used in relation to aeronautical data, means a degree of assurance that aeronautical data and its values have not been lost or altered since the data origination or authorised amendment;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(x) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"integrity classification"
when used in relation to aeronautical data, means classification based upon the potential risk resulting from the use of corrupted data;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(y) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"International Air Services Act"
means the International Air Services Act, 1993 (Act No. 60 of 1993);
"international airways volcano watch"
means international arrangements for monitoring and providing warnings, to aircraft, of volcanic ash in the atmosphere;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(ff) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"international flight"
means a flight which passes through the airspace over the territory of more than one State;
"International NOTAM Office (NOF)"
means an office designated by a State for the exchange of NOTAM internationally;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(z) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea"
means the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea made under the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, signed in London on 20 October 1972, set out in the Third Schedule to the Merchant Shipping Act, 1951 (Act No. 57 of 1951);
"investigation"
for purposes of Part 12, means a process conducted for the purpose of accident prevention which includes the gathering and analysis of information, the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of causes and/or contributing factors and, when appropriate, the making of recommendations;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(j) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"investigator"
for purposes of Part 12, means a person designated as such in terms of Regulation 12.01.4 on the basis of his or her qualifications or experience, for the purpose of assisting the investigator in charge in an investigation;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"investigator-in-charge"
means a person designated in terms of regulation 12.01.3 on the basis of his or her qualifications and charged with the responsibility for the organisation, conduct and control of and the reporting on the investigation of an accident or incident;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(l) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"import test flight"
means a flight tor the purpose of the initial validation or rendering effective of a certificate of airworthiness previously issued by another airworthiness authority, for an aircraft imported into the RSA as prescribed by the Director;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(m) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"isolated aerodrome"
means a destination aerodrome for which there is no destination alternate aerodrome suitable for a given aeroplane type;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"just culture"
means a culture in which persons are not punished for actions, omissions or decisions taken by them that are commensurate with their duties, experience and training, but in which gross negligence, wilful violations and destructive acts are not tolerated;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(aa) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"kite"
means a non-power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft, other than a glider or hang-glider, deriving its lift in flight mainly from aerodynamic reactions on the surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight, and for the purpose of these Regulations also means a line-controlled kite;
"known cargo"
means a consignment from a known consignor or a regulated agent to which the appropriate security controls, prescribed by Part 108, have been applied; and includes a consignment of unknown cargo which have been subjected to appropriate security controls;
"known consignor"
means the originator of goods for carriage by air:
(a) | who has an established business with a regulated agent on the basis of agreed security criteria as prescribed in Part 1 08; |
(b) | who complies with the criteria prescribed in Part 108 for a known consignor; |
"known consignor validator''
means a person or entity designated by the Director in terms of Regulation 108.05.7;
"landing area"
means that part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft;
"landing decision point"
means the point used in determining landing performance from which, a power unit failure having been recognised at this point, the landing may be safely continued or a baulked landing initiated;
"landing distance available"
means the length of the runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing;
"landing surface"
means the part of the surface of an aerodrome which the aerodrome operator has declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft landing in a particular direction;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(h) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"landowner permission"
means written permission issued, in compliance with a Municipal by-law, by an authorised land user, property title holder, lease holder, servitude holder, site manager or supervisor, building or structure owner, to an UAS operator to operate a UAS within a distance of 50 m from a building or structure;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(gg) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"landside area"
means an area identified as such by a relevant entity in their security programme including an area of an airport, adjacent terrain and building, or any portion that is not airside;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(gg) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"large aircraft"
means an aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5 700 kg;
Note- | Includes aeroplanes and helicopters. |
"lateral navigation"
refers to azimuth navigation without positive vertical guidance associated with non-precision approach procedures or en-route;
"lease"
when used in reference to an aircraft, means a contractual arrangement between a lessor and a lessee whereby a properly licensed air service operator gains commercial control of an entire aircraft without transfer of ownership, and which may be in the form of any of the following:
(a) | financial or capital lease; |
(b) | operating lease— |
(i) | dry lease; |
(ii) | damp lease; |
(iii) | wet lease; or |
(iv) | sub-charter, as defined; |
"lessee"
with reference to an aircraft lease means the party to which the aircraft is leased;
"lessor"
with reference to an aircraft lease means the party from which or whom the aircraft is leased;
"letter of TSO design approval"
means a design approval for a foreign-manufactured article which complies with a specific TSO;
"level"
means a generic term relating to the vertical position of an aircraft in flight and meaning variously, height, altitude or flight level;
"licensing authority"
means the authority designated by a Contracting State as responsible for the licensing of personnel;
"lighter-than-air aircraft"
means any aircraft supported mainly by its buoyancy in the air;
"light sport aeroplane"
means an aeroplane of which the maximum take-off mass and other classification parameters are defined in Document SA-CATS 24 as technical standard 24.01.2.0.1;
"likely"
in the context of the medical provisions in Part 67, means with a probability of occurring that is unacceptable to the medical assessor;
"limit loads"
means the maximum loads assumed to occur in the anticipated aircraft operating conditions;
"line flight"
means a commercial flight carried out under normal operations by the holder of a licence issued in terms of the Air Services Licensing Act or the International Air Services Act;
"line flying"
means flying done by flight crew under normal commercial operations or corporate aviation operations;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(bb) of Notice No. R. 1349, dated 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"line induction training"
means training provided for a flight crew member in the form of approved supervised flying during line operations;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(uu) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"line operational evaluation"
means an evaluation of individual and crew performance in a flight simulation device conducted during real-time (LOS);
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"line operational simulation"
means a training or evaluation session conducted in a "line environment" setting. LOS includes LOFT, Special Purpose Operational Training (SPOT), and LOE. Instruction and training is based on learning objectives, behavioural observation, and assessment of performance progress and instructor debriefing or critique (feedback). The training objectives are proficiency objectives that include both technical and CRM issues identified by a task analysis;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"line oriented flight training"
means a training conducted as a line operation and allows for no interruption by the instructor during the session except for a non-disruptive acceleration of uneventful en-route segments;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"load"
means the design strength requirements, prescribed for an aircraft in terms of its limit load and ultimate load;
"load factor"
means the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces, or ground reactions;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"lost C2 Link state"
means the UAS state in which a C2 Link performance has degraded, because of a C2 Link interruption that is longer than a lost C2 Link decision time, to a point where it is not sufficient to allow a remote pilot to actively manage a flight in a safe and timely manner;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(hh) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"low-visibility procedures"
means procedures applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations during low visibility operations;
"low-visibility take-off"
means a take-off where the RVR is less than 400 metres;
"Mach number"
means the ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound;
"mail"
means dispatches of correspondence and other objects tendered by or intended for delivery to a postal company;
"main parachute"
means a parachute which is designed and intended to be used as the primary parachute for a parachute descent;
"maintenance"
means a performance of tasks on an aircraft, RPAS, engine, propeller, or associated part required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, RPAS, engine, propeller or associated part including any one or combination of overhaul, inspection, replacement, defect rectification, and embodiment of a modification or repair;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(ii) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"maintenance control manual"
means a document, compiled by an owner or operator in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations that defines the organisation and procedures established for ensuring the sustained airworthiness of the aircraft to which it applies, its components, installed systems and equipment";
"Maintenance Manager"
means a manager responsible for the day-to-day provision of aircraft maintenance activities and the continuous airworthiness of all aircraft released for flight operations;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ww) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"maintenance programme"
means a document which describes the specific scheduled maintenance tasks and their frequency of completion and related procedures, such as a reliability programme, necessary for the safe operation of those aircraft to which it applies;
"maintenance records"
means records that set out the details of maintenance carried out on an aircraft, engine, propeller, or associated part;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(c) of Notice No. R. 3169, GG 48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Fifth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"maintenance release"
means a document which contains a certification confirming that the maintenance work to which it relates has been completed in a satisfactory manner, either in accordance with the approved maintenance data and the procedures described in the maintenance organization's procedures manual or under an equivalent system;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(d) of Notice No. R. 3169, GG 48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Fifth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"maintenance test flight"
means a flight for the purpose of the validation or rendering effective of a certificate of airworthiness previously issued by the Director;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(cc) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"major change"
means any change in the type design which is extensive enough to require a substantially complete investigation to determine compliance with the type certification basis;
"major modification"
means a modification not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications—
(a) | which may appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operations, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or |
(b) | which is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary operations; |
"major repair''
means a repair—
(a) | which, if improperly done, may appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or |
(b) | which is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by elementary operations; |
"mandatory continuing airworthiness information"
means a mandatory requirements for the modification, replacement of parts, or inspection of aircraft and amendment of operating limitations and procedures for the safe operation of the aircraft, which includes the information issued by a Contracting State in the form of airworthiness directives;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(m) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"mandatory periodic inspection"
means an inspection prescribed in Regulation 43.02.8;
"manoeuvring area"
means that part of an aerodrome used for take-off, landing (including the runway strips) and taxiing of aircraft, excluding an apron;
"manual of procedure"
means a document endorsed by the head of an organisation which details the organisation's structure and management responsibilities, scope of work, description of facilities, maintenance procedures and quality assurance or inspection systems;
"marked discontinuity"
means an abrupt and sustained change in wind direction of 30° or more, with a wind speed of 10 knots before or after the change, or a change in wind speed of 10 knots or more, lasting at least two minutes;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(jj) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"Master"
means the Master as defined in section 1 of the Administration of Estates Act, 1965 (Act No. 66 of 1965);
"Master QTG"
for a synthetic training device, means the qualification test guide (QTG) approved for the device under Part 60;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(j) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"master minimum equipment list"
means a list compiled for a particular aircraft type by the manufacturer of the aircraft with the approval of the appropriate authority of the State of Manufacture containing items, one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the commencement of a flight;
"maximum approved passenger seating configuration"
means the maximum passenger seating capacity of an aircraft, excluding pilot seats, flight deck seats and all jumpseats, as applicable, used by the operator in a commercial air transport and corporate aviation operation, approved by the Director and specified in the operations manual referred to in regulations 93.04.2, 121.04.2, 127.04.2 and 135.04.2;
Note- | Also known as 'maximum certificated passenger capacity' or 'maximum certificated passenger configuration1 |
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(dd) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"maximum certificated mass"
means the maximum permissible mass shown in the AFM or other document associated with the certificate of airworthiness at which an aircraft may commence its take-off under standard atmospheric conditions at sea level;
"maximum diversion time"
means maximum allowable range, expressed in time, from a point on a route to an en-route alternate aerodrome;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"medically compromised passenger"
means a person who is physically or mentally compromised due to illness, injury, congenital malfunction or other temporary or permanent incapacity or disability, who cannot assist himself or herself, and is not likely to require medical care, but needs to be accompanied by a person to provide comfort during the flight and to assist in any emergency flight procedure;
"medical assessment"
means the evidence issued by a Contracting State that the licence holder meets specific requirements of medical fitness;
"medical assessor"
means a physician, qualified and experienced in the practice of aviation medicine, who evaluates medical reports submitted to the Authority by medical examiners;
"medical examiner"
means a physician, with training in aviation medicine and practical knowledge and experience of the aviation environment, who is designated by the Director to conduct medical examinations of fitness of applicants for licences or ratings for which medical requirements are prescribed, and in the context of these Regulations, refers to the aviation medical examiner designated by the Director in terms of Part 67;
"medical personnel"
means any aviation health care provider registered with an appropriate authority who is assigned to provide medical care to a patient from the time of boarding an aircraft until completion of disembarkation and who is knowledgeable of aviation stresses and their effect on the human body and on medical life support and equipment used in the transport of patients;
"medical service provider"
means the person, associated with an air ambulance operator for the purposes of taking responsibility for the medical aspects of the operation and who is subject to the legislation administered by the Department of Health;
"metadata"
means a structured description of the content, quality, condition or other characteristics of data;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ee) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"METAR"
means aerodrome routine meteorological report in meteorological code'
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(p) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"meteorological information"
means any meteorological report, analysis or forecast in support of aviation, and any other statement in support of aviation relating to existing or expected meteorological conditions;
"Meteorological office"
means an office established by the Meteorological Service Provider to provide an aeronautical meteorological service for international air navigation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(kk) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"meteorological service"
means any of the following services which provide meteorological information in support of aviation—
(a) | climatology service, which is a service for the development and supply of climatological information for a specific place or airspace; |
(b) | forecast service, which is a service for the supply of forecast meteorological information for a specific area or portion of airspace; |
(c) | information dissemination service, which is a service for the collection and dissemination of meteorological information; |
(d) | meteorological briefing service, which is a service for the supply of written and oral meteorological information on existing and expected meteorological conditions; |
(e) | meteorological reporting service, which is a service for the supply of routine meteorological reports; and |
(f) | meteorological watch service, which is a service for maintaining a watch over meteorological conditions affecting aircraft operations in a specific area; |
"Meteorological Service Provider"
means the South African Weather Service, a juristic person established by section 2 of the South African Weather Service Act, 2001 (Act No. 08 of 2001);
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(ll) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"meteorological watch office"
means an office designated to provide information concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather and other phenomena in the atmosphere that may affect the safety of aircraft operations within its specified area of responsibility;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(q) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"micro-light aeroplane"
means an aeroplane of which the minimum flying speed and the maximum take-off mass have been restricted for classification purposes. The values of these restrictions are defined in Document SA-CATS 24;
"minimum descent altitude"
means a specified altitude in a 2D instrument approach;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(nn) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"minimum descent height"
means a specified height in a 2D instrument approach operation or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(nn) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"minimum descent altitude/height"
[Definition deleted by regulation 1(mm) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"minimum equipment list"
means a list which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the MMEL established for the aircraft type;
"minor change"
means any change in type design which has no appreciable effect on the weight, balance, structural strength, reliability, operational characteristics or other characteristics affecting the airworthiness of the product;
"minor modification"
means a modification other than a major modification;
"missed approach point''
means that point, in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure shall be initiated, in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed;
"missed approach procedure"
means the procedure to be followed if the approach to landing cannot be continued;
"model aircraft"
means a heavier-than-air aircraft of limited dimensions, with or without a propulsion device, unable to carry a human being, to be used for competition, sport or recreational purposes;
Note - This definition does not include RPAS.
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(xx) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"modification"
means a change to a type design of an aircraft, engine or propeller when used in relation to a type certificated aircraft, engine or propeller;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(yy) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"movement area"
means that part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron;
"multi-unmanned aircraft operation"
means an operation where two or more UA are controlled by one remote pilot station individually rather than collectively during flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(oo) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"national accreditation body"
means an institution responsible for third part or verification body attestation related to conformity assessments and calibration facilities conveying formal demonstration of their competence to carry out tasks against specified criteria
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(r) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"national pilot licence"
means a pilot licence or rating issued in terms of Part 62 of the Regulations and is not recognised by the International Civil Aviation Organisation and may therefore only be utilised within the borders of the Republic, unless its use is specifically authorised by the responsible authority for other foreign airspace;
"nautical mile"
means the length equal to 1 852 metres exactly;
"navigation specification"
means a set of aircraft and flight crew requirements needed to support performance-based navigation operations within a defined airspace. There are two kinds of navigation specifications—
(a) | RNP specification. A navigation specification based on RNAV that includes the requirement for performance monitoring and alerting, designated by the prefix RNP, e.g. RNP 4, RNP APCH; and |
(b) | RNAV specification. A navigation specification based on RNAV that does not include the requirement for performance monitoring and alerting, designated by the prefix RNAV, e.g. RNAV 5, RNAV 1; |
"next intended user"
means an entity that receives aeronautical data or information from an aeronautical information service;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zz) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"near-parallel runways"
means non-intersecting runways whose extended centre lines have an angle of convergence or divergence of 15 degrees or less;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(pp) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"new entrant"
means an aeroplane operator that commences an aviation activity falling within the scope of Subpart 10 of Part 91 and whose activity is not in whole or in part a continuation of an aviation activity previously performed by another aeroplane operator;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(s) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"newly overhauled"
when used to describe a product, means that the product has not been operated or placed in service, except for functional testing, since having been overhauled, inspected and approved for release to service in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations;
"night"
means the period from 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise, sunset and sunrise being as given in the publication "Times of Sunrise, Sunset and Local Apparent Noon of the South African Astronomical Observatory'' or a similar publication issued by a recognised astronomical observatory;
"night duty"
means a period of not less than 4 hours between 20h00 and 06h00 of the next day;
"non-congested, hostile environment"
with respect to helicopter operations, means an hostile environment outside a congested area;
"non-hostile environment"
with respect to helicopter operations, means an environment in which—
(a) | a safe forced landing can be accomplished because the surface and surrounding environment are adequate; |
(b) | the helicopter occupants can be adequately protected from the elements; |
(c) | search and rescue response/capability is provided consistent with anticipated exposure; and |
(d) | the assessed risk of endangering persons or property on the ground is acceptable; |
Note- | Those parts of a congested area satisfying the above requirements are considered nonhostile. |
"non-populous area"
in terms of Part 137, means an area on the surface of the earth other than a populous area;
"non-precision approach and landing"
means an instrument approach and landing operation that utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance;
"non-type certificated aircraft"
means any aircraft that does not qualify for the issue of a certificate of airworthiness in terms of Part 21 and shall include any type certificated aircraft that has been scrapped, of which the original identification plate should have to be removed and returned to the applicable aviation authority and is rebuild as a full-scale replica;
"Notice to Airmen"
means a notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition, or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure, or hazard, a timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(qq) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"observable behaviour"
means a single role-related behaviour that can be observed and may or may not be measurable;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(rr) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"observation"
means in a meteorological context, evaluation of one or more meteorological elements;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(rr) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"observer"
means a trained and competent person designated by the operator who, by visual observation of the remotely piloted aircraft, assists the remote pilot in the safe conduct of the flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(g) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"obstacle"
means all fixed (whether temporary or permanent) and mobile object, or part thereof, that—
(a) | is located on an area intended for the surface movement of aircraft; |
(b) | extend above a defined surface intended to protect aircraft in flight; or |
(c) | stand outside the defined surface, and that has been assessed as being a hazard to air navigation; |
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ff) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"obstacle/terrain data collection surface"
means a defined surface intended for the purpose of collecting obstacle or terrain data;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ff) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"obstacle clearance altitude or height"
means the lowest altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the aerodrome elevation as applicable, used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria;
Note 1 - | Obstacle clearance altitude is referenced to mean sea level and obstacle clearance height is referenced to the threshold elevation or in the case of non-precision approach procedures to the aerodrome elevation or the threshold elevation if that is more than 7 ft (2 m) below the aerodrome elevation. An obstacle clearance height for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation. |
Note 2 - | For convenience when both expressions are used they may be written in the form "obstacle clearance altitude/height" and abbreviated "OCA/H"; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(q) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"occurrence"
means any safety related event which endangers or which, if not corrected or addressed, could endanger an aircraft, its occupants or any other person and includes in particular an incident or accident;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(gg) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"official examiner"
means a person, designated by the Director, who may carry out the duties and functions of a DFE, as specifically authorised by the Director for a period of not more than 90 days;
"offshore operations"
with respect to helicopter operations, means operations which routinely have a substantial proportion of the flight conducted over sea areas to or from offshore locations. Such operations include, but are not limited to, support of offshore oil, gas and mineral exploitation and sea-pilot transfer;
"operating base" or "main base of operations"
means the location from which operational control is exercised;
Note- | An operating base is normally the location where personnel involved in the operation of the aeroplane work and the records associated with the operation are located. An operating base has a degree of permanency beyond that of a regular point of call. |
"on the job training instructor''
when referring to air traffic controller training shall mean an air traffic controller who is the holder of the appropriate instructor rating issued under Part 65;
"operating certificate"
means an operating certificate issued by the Director authorising an operator of a commercial air transport aircraft to carry out specified air transport operations;
"operating lease"
means an arrangement in terms of which an air service operator (lessee) obtains the use of an aircraft owned or operated by another party (lessor) for a defined period;
"operational control"
in respect of a commercial air transport or corporate aviation operation means the exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion or termination of a flight in the interest of the safety of the aircraft and the regularity and efficiency of the flight as laid down in the operations manual of the operator;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(hh) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"operational flight plan"
means the operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes concerned;
"operational flying"
has the same meaning as "line flying";
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(jj) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"operation"
means an activity of group of activities which are subject to the same or similar hazards and which require a set of equipment to be specified or the achievement and maintenance of a set of pilot competencies, to eliminate or mitigate the risk of such hazards;
Note - | Such activities could include, but would not be limited to, offshore operation, hell -hoist operations or emergency medical service. |
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(l) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"operations In performance Class 1"
means helicopter operations with performance such that, in the event of a critical power-unit failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, unless the failure occurs prior to reaching the take-off decision point or after passing the landing decision point, in which cases the helicopter must be able to land within the rejected take-off or landing area;
Note- | Refer to regulation 91.08.3 for helicopter performance classifications. |
"operations in performance Class 2"
means helicopter operations with performance such that, in the event of critical power-unit failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, except when the failure occurs early during the take-off manoeuvre or late in the landing manoeuvre, in which cases a forced landing may be required;
Note- | Refer to regulation 91. 08.3 for helicopter performance classifications. |
"operations in performance Class 3"
means helicopter operations with performance such that, in the event of a power-unit failure at any time during the flight, a forced landing will be required;
"operations manual"
means a manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties as prescribed in Parts 93, 121, 127 and 135 of the regulations;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(ii) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"operations personnel"
for the purposes of Part 138, means personnel assigned to or directly involved in ground and flight emergency medical service operations;
"operations specifications"
means the authorizations, conditions and limitations associated with the air operator certificate or QMS or maintenance organisation and subject to the conditions in the operations manual or manual of procedure;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(kk) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"operator"
means a natural or artificial entity, holding a valid licence and operating certificate or equivalent thereof, authorising such entity to conduct scheduled, non-scheduled or general air services, and may be referred to as 'airline', 'air carrier', 'air service operator', CAO or "commercial air transport operator", as defined;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(ll) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"operator of a flight simulator or flight training device"
means the person who is responsible for the maintenance and operation of the simulator or device;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(m) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"operator's maintenance control manual"
means the document which describes the operator's procedures that are necessary to ensure that all scheduled and unscheduled maintenance are performed as required by the provisions of Parts 121, 127 and 135, and 'maintenance schedule' has a corresponding meaning;
"organisation responsible for type design"
means an organisation that holds a type certificate, or equivalent document for an aircraft, engine or propeller type, issued by a Contracting State;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(bbb) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"origination"
means in relation to aeronautical data or aeronautical information, a creation of the value associated with new data or information or a modification of the value of existing data or information;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(bbb) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"originator"
means in relation to aeronautical data or aeronautical information, an entity that is accountable for data or information origination from which an AIS receives aeronautical data and aeronautical information;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(bbb) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"organisation"
[Definition deleted by regulation 2(aaa) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"organisation responsible for the type design"
means an organisation that holds a type certificate, or equivalent document, for an aircraft, RPS, engine or propeller type, issued by a Contracting State;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(ss) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"ornithopter"
means a heavier than air aircraft supported in flight mainly by the reactions of the air on planes to which flapping motion is imparted;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"orthometric height"
means height of a point related to the geoid, generally presented as an MSL elevation;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(mm) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"overpack"
means an enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or more packages and to form one handling unit for convenience of handling and stowage;
"owner"
in relation to an aircraft, means the person in whose name the aircraft is registered, and includes—
(a) | any person who is or has been acting as agent in the Republic for a foreign owner, or any person by whom the aircraft is hired at the time; |
(b) | a person who has the right of possession of an aircraft for 14 days or longer; and |
(c) | for the purpose of Part 91 and Part 93, an operator of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(nn) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"package"
means the complete product of the packaging consisting of the packaging and its contents prepared for conveyance;
"packaging"
means a receptacle and any other component or material necessary for the receptacle to perform its containment function and to ensure compliance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS 92;
"packing"
means the process whereby an article or substance is enveloped in a wrapping, enclosed in a packaging or otherwise secured;
"parachute"
means a device comprising a flexible drag, or drag and lift surface from which load is suspended by shroud lines capable of controlled deployment from a packed condition;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(ccc) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"parachute assembly"
means any parachute and its associated harness and container system, and other attached equipment for use by a person;
"parachute descent"
means any descent made from an aircraft by a person with the prior intention of deploying a parachute;
"parachute drop zone"
means a designated area of airspace in which parachute descents are intended to be made;
"parachute landing area"
means an area of ground or water onto which parachute landings are intended to be made;
"parachute technician"
means a person who certifies parachute equipment;
"paraglider"
means a non-power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft without a rigid primary structure, comprising a flexible drag, or drag and ram-air type lift surface, from which the pilot and passengers are suspended by shroud lines, which is foot-launched, and of which the descent is partly controlled by the pilot by means of two steering lines, and which for the purposes of Parts 24, 94 and 96 includes a paratrike and a powered paraglider;
"paratrike"
means a paraglider with a large ram-air type lift surface and fixed undercarriage;
"Part"
means a Part of these regulations;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ddd) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"passenger"
means a person, other than a crew member or supernumerary, who is carried on board an aircraft;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(o) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"passenger aircraft"
means an aircraft which carries any person other than a flight crew member, an operator's employee in an official capacity, an authorised officer or a person accompanying a consignment or other cargo;
"payload"
means all the elements of an RPAS that are not necessary for flight but that are carried for the purpose of fulfilling specific mission objectives;"
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(h) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"performance-based communication"
means communication based on performance specifications applied to the provision of air traffic services;
Note- | An RCP specification includes communication performance requirements that are allocated to system components in terms of the communication to be provided and associated transaction time, continuity, availability, integrity, safety and functionality needed for the proposed operation in the context of a particular airspace concept. |
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(j) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"performance based navigation"
means area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an instrument approach procedure or in a designated airspace;
Note- | Performance requirements are expressed in navigation specifications in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality needed for the proposed operation in the context of a particular airspace concept. |
"performance-based surveillance"
means surveillance based on performance specifications applied to the provision of air traffic services;
Note- | An RSP specification includes surveillance performance requirements that are allocated to system components in terms of the surveillance to be provided and associated data delivery time, continuity, availability, integrity, accuracy of the surveillance data, safety and functionality needed for the proposed operation in the context of a particular airspace concept. |
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"performance criteria"
means statements used to assess whether the required levels of performance have been achieved for a competency consisting of an observable behaviour, condition, and competency standard;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(tt) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"period of operational duty"
means the period during which an air traffic controller is actually exercising the privileges of the air traffic service licence;
"pilot (to)"
means to manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight time and may also be referred to as 'pilot flying' (PF);
"pilot flying"
means a pilot whose primary task is to control and manage a flight path and whose secondary task is to perform non-flight path related actions including radio communications, aircraft systems, other operational activities, and monitoring crew members;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(uu) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"pilot-in-command"
means the pilot designated by the operator as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of a flight, without regard to whether or not he or she is manipulating the controls;
"pilot-in-command under supervision"
means a co-pilot performing the duties and functions of a PIC under the supervision of the PIC in accordance with a method of supervision acceptable to the Authority;
"pilot monitoring"
means a pilot whose primary task is to monitor a flight path and its management by a pilot flying and whose secondary task is to perform non-flight path related actions including radio communications, aircraft systems, other operational activities, and monitoring other crew members;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(vv) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"point of no return"
means the last possible geographic point at which an aeroplane can proceed to the destination aerodrome as well as to an available en route alternate aerodrome for a given flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"policy"
means a document or a statement containing the organization's position or stance regarding a specific issue;
"populous area"
in terms of Part 137, means an area on the surface of the earth where—
(a) | if an aeroplane is required to execute a forced landing, the aeroplane would not be able to glide safely clear of any human presence or building; or |
(b) | if a helicopter is required to autorotate, such helicopter would not be able to land clear of any human presence or building. |
"position"
when used in relation to geographical location, means set of coordinates (latitude and longitude) referenced to the mathematical reference ellipsoid which define the position of a point on the surface of the Earth;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(o) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"postal company"
means the company incorporated in terms of section 3(1) of the Postal Office Act, 1958 (Act 44 of 1958) or an equivalent authority of a Contracting State;
"post maintenance test flight"
means a flight for the purposes of investigative test flying to confirm the release to service following regular maintenance;
"power-assisted glider"
means a glider with a maximum all-up mass of not more than 850 kg, fitted with a retractable engine that is used mainly for the purpose of launch and climb and short periods of free flight;
"powered glider"
means an aircraft equipped with one or more engines which has, with the engine or engines not operating, the performance characteristics of a glider;
"powered hang-glider"
means a hang-glider, fitted with an engine attached either to the structure or to the pilot, and which also maybe fitted with a detachable undercarriage, to support its launch and climb;
"powered paraglider"
means a paraglider, fitted with an engine attached to the pilot to assist in its launch and in short local powered flights, and which may have a fixed or detachable undercarriage;
"powerplant"
means a system consisting of the engine, drive system component (if applicable), and propeller (if installed), their accessories, ancillary parts, and fuel and oil systems installed on aircraft but excluding the rotors for a helicopter;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(l) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"precision approach"
means an instrument approach for landing in which precision azimuth guidance and precision glide path guidance are provided in accordance with the minima prescribed for the category of operation. Precision approaches are categorized as follows—
(a) | Category I (CAT I) operation. A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height not lower than 200ft (60 m) and with either a visibility not less than 800 m or a RVR not less than 550 m; |
(b) | Category II (CAT II) operation. A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 200ft (60 m), but not lower than 100ft (30 m), and a RVR not less than 300 m; |
(c) | Category IIIA (CAT IIIA) operation. A precision instrument approach and landing with— |
(i) | a decision height lower than 100ft (30m) or no decision height; and |
(ii) | a RVR not less than 175m; |
(d) | Category IIIB (CAT IIIB) operation. A precision instrument approach and landing with— |
(i) | a decision height lower than 50ft (15m) or no decision height; and |
(ii) | a RVR less than 175m but not less than 50 m; and |
(e) | Category IIIC (CAT IIIC) operation. A precision instrument approach and landing with no decision height and no RVR limitations; |
Note- | Where decision height (DH) and RVR fall into different categories of operation, the instrument approach and landing operation would be conducted in accordance with the requirements of the most demanding category (e.g. an operation with a DH in the range of CAT II/A but with an RVR in the range of CAT 11/B would be considered a CAT 11/B operation or an operation with a DH in the range of CAT II but with an RVR in the range of CAT I would be considered a CAT II operation) |
"precision approach and landing operation"
means a precision instrument approach and landing that utilizes precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the approach and landing phase, and in respect of helicopters means that part of the flight from 300 m (1 000 feet) above the elevation of the final approach and take-off area, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or from the commencement of the descent in the other cases, to landing or to the balked landing point;
"pre-flight information bulletin"
means a presentation of current NOTAM information of operational significance, prepared prior to flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(pp) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"preliminary report"
means the communication used for the prompt dissemination of data which is obtained in early stages of an investigation;
"prescribed loads"
in respect of an aircraft means limit loads, unless otherwise stated;
"pressure altitude"
means an atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude which corresponds to that pressure in the standard atmosphere;
"prevailing visibility"
means the greatest visibility value, observed in accordance with the definition of “visibility”, which is reached within at least half the horizon circle or within at least half of the surface of an aerodrome. These areas could comprise contiguous or non-contiguous sectors;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(ww) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"primary-means navigation system"
refers to an air navigation system, approved by the Director for a given operation or phase of flight, that meets accuracy and integrity requirements, but does not necessarily meet full availability and continuity requirements. Safety in a primary means navigation system is inter alia achieved by limiting flights to specific time periods and through appropriate procedural restrictions;
"primary runway"
means a runway used in preference to others whenever conditions permit;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(xx) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"private operation"
means the use of an RPA for an individual's personal and private purposes where there is no commercial outcome, interest or gain;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"problematic use of psychoactive substances"
means the use or abuse of, or dependence on, one or more psychoactive substances by aviation personnel in a way that:
(a) | constitutes a potential physical or psychological hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health or welfare of others; or |
(b) | causes or complicates an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or disorder; |
"procedural control"
means a term to indicate that information derived from an ATS surveillance system is not required for the provision of an air traffic control service;
"procedural separation"
means the separation used when providing procedural control as defined in the document ATS Standards and Procedures Manual;
"process"
means a set of interrelated or interacted activities which transform inputs into outputs;
"process release certificate or report"
means a certificate or report which verifies compliance with a specific process standard;
"product"
means an aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller, and includes the classes of products or types of aircraft referred to in Part 21;
"production-built aircraft"
means an amateur-built aircraft, of which the prototype has been constructed and approved in terms of Part 24, and which is made available by the constructor to others either as a fully-assembled non-type certificated aircraft;
"prognostic chart"
means a forecast of a specified meteorological element for a specified time or period and a specified surface or portion of airspace, depicted graphically on a chart;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(yy) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"prohibited area"
means any area declared as such in terms of regulation 91.06.19;
"proper shipping name"
means the name to be used to describe a particular article or substance in all shipping documents and notifications and, where applicable, on packagings;
"pro-tem investigator"
means a person designated as such by the Director in terms of regulation 12.01.5;
"proving flight"
means—
(a) | in terms of Part 24 of these Regulations, any flight conducted in terms of a Proving flight authority for the purpose of qualifying for the consideration and issuance of an Authority to fly; and |
(b) | in terms of an application for or amendment to an AOC, means a flight undertaken to affirm the operator's ability to provide adequate control and supervision of its flight operations over the routes proposed to be flown or the capability of the aircraft to operate on those routes; |
"proving flight authority"
means the authorisation to commence flight trials as are necessary for development purposes, for the compilation of handling and operational data and, generally, for the preparation of the aircraft for the tests necessary for the issue of an authority to fly;
"psychoactive substances"
means any substance with psychotropic effects, excluding caffeine and tobacco, but which includes the following:
(a) | narcotic analgesics such as opiates; |
(b) | illicit substances such as cannabis and cocaine; |
(c) | sedative hypnotics; |
(d) | hallucinogens; |
(e) | central nervous system depressants; and |
(f) | central nervous system stimulants, including volatile solvents and alcohol; |
"public air transport service"
means an air service that has as its main purpose the transport of passengers, cargo or mail;
"public health emergency of international concern"
means an extraordinary event which is considered, as provided in these Regulations—
(a) | to constitute a public health risk to States through the international spread of disease; and |
(b) | to potentially require a coordinated international response; |
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(p) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"QNH"
means altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(t) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"qualification level, for a flight simulator or flight training device"
has the meaning given by regulation 60.01.3;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(o) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"qualification test guide)" (QTR)
for a synthetic training device, means a document that:
(a) | shows that: |
(i) | the performance and handling qualities of the synthetic training device agree, within the limits set out in the Manual of Standards, with those of the aircraft to which it relates; and |
(ii) | all applicable requirements in these Regulations have been met; and |
(b) | includes the following information that relates to the matters mentioned in paragraph (a): |
(i) | data relating to the performance and handling qualities of the aircraft and synthetic training device; |
(ii) | the validation tests, and all functions and subjective tests for the device; |
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(o) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"quality"
means the totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs;
"quality assurance"
means all the planned and systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence that all organizational activities satisfy given standards and requirements, including the ones specified by the relevant organisation in relevant manuals;
"quality audit"
means a systematic and independent examination to determine whether quality activities and related results comply with planned arrangements and whether these arrangements are implemented effectively and are suitable to achieve objectives;
"quality inspection"
means that part of quality management involving quality control;
"quality management"
means a management approach to coordinated activities focused on the means to achieve product or service quality objectives through the use of its four key components: quality planning; quality control; quality assurance; and quality improvement;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(eee) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"quality manager"
means the manager responsible for the monitoring function and for requesting remedial action and is responsible directly to the accountable manager;
"quality manual"
means the document containing the relevant information pertaining to an organization's quality assurance system;
"quality of training"
means the outcome of the training that meets stated or implied needs within the framework of set standards;
"quality system"
means documented organisational procedures and policies; internal audit of these policies and procedures; management review; and recommendation for quality improvement;
"quick-donning mask"
means an oxygen mask that can be secured by a person using one hand on the person's face within five seconds, and that provides an immediate supply of oxygen;
Note- Refer to technical standard 91.04.18 for additional requirements associated with quickdonning masks.
"radio line-of-sight"
means a direct electronic point-to-point contact between a transmitter and receiver;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(j) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"radio navigation service"
means a service providing guidance information or position data for the efficient and safe operation of aircraft supported by one or more radio navigational aids;
"radio site"
means a site for the location of communication, navigation, surveillance or meteorological ground equipment. or a collection thereof, for the purpose of aviation safety;
"radiotelephony"
means a form of radio communication primarily intended for the exchange of information in the form of speech;
"RAIM warning"
refers to a warning that the integrity of the navigation position solution derived from GNSS satellites signals may be unreliable;
"rapid exit taxiway"
means a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways and thereby minimising runway occupancy times;
"rated air traffic controller"
means an air traffic controller holding a licence and valid ratings appropriate to the privileges to be exercised;
"rating"
means an authorisation entered on or associated with a licence and forming part of such licence, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations relating to such licence;
"rating assessment examiner"
means a rating assessment examiner who has been designated in terms of the provisions of regulation 65.01.9;
"Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring"
refers to a technique whereby the airborne GNSS system determines the integrity of the GNSS navigation signals, using only GNSS signals or GNSS signals augmented with altitude. This determination is achieved by a consistency check among redundant pseudo-range measurements;
"receptacle"
means any container used for or capable of receiving and holding substances or articles, including any means of closing;
"Reduced Vertical Separation Minima"
means the reduced separation above flight level 290 of aircraft to a 1000 feet in the opposite direction and 2000 feet in the same direction;
"regular station"
means a station selected from an en-route air-ground radiotelephony network to communicate with or to intercept communication from an aircraft under normal conditions;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(fff) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"regional air navigation agreement"
means an agreement approved by the ICAO Council normally on the advice of a regional air navigation meeting resolution;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(zz) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"regulated agent"
means a commercial air transport operator, a freight forwarder, cargo handling agent, postal agency and any other person approved by the Director as a regulated agent involved in the carriage of cargo by air;
"rejected take-off distance required"
means the horizontal distance required from the start of the take-off to the point where the helicopter comes to a full stop following a power unit failure and rejection of the take-off at the take-off decision point;
"release to service"
(a) | in relation to an aircraft, means— |
(i) | in respect of scheduled maintenance, the issuing of a certificate of release to service; and |
(ii) | in respect of line maintenance, the appropriate entry in the technical logbook or flight folio, as the case may be; and |
(b) | in relation to an aircraft component, means the issuing of— |
(i) | a serviceable label; or |
(ii) | a certificate relating to the maintenance of an aircraft; |
"relief flight"
means a flight operated for humanitarian purposes, which carries relief personnel or relief supplies such as fool, clothing, shelter, medical and other items during or after an emergency or disaster, or is used to evaluate persons and animals from a place where their life or health is threatened by such emergency or disaster, to a safe haven in the same State or another State willing to receive such persons or animals;
[Definition inserted by 1(a) of Notice No. 4057, GG49657, dated 10 November 2023 (Twenty-Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"remote pilot"
means the person who manipulates the flight controls or manages the flight command instructions of a RPA during flight time;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"remote pilot-in-command"
means a remote pilot in command of a RPA and charged with the safe conduct of a flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(bbb) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"remote pilot station"
means a component of RPAS containing equipment used to pilot an RPA;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(ccc) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"remotely piloted aircraft"
means an unmanned aircraft which is piloted from a remote pilot station, excluding model aircraft and toy aircraft as defined in this Part;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"remotely piloted aircraft system"
means a set of configurable elements consisting of a remotely piloted aircraft, its associated remote pilot station(s), the required command and control links and any other system elements as may be required at any point during flight operation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"remuneration"
when used in relation to aircraft operations, means defraying all or part of the costs of the operation whether in cash or in kind and whether or not it is commensurate with the value of the service;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(qq) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"remote co-pilot"
means a licensed remote pilot serving in any remote piloting capacity other than as remote pilot-in-command but excluding a remote pilot who is undergoing flight instruction;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(aaa) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"remote flight crew member"
means a licensed flight crew member charged with duties essential to operation of RPAS during a flight duty period;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(aaa) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"rendering (a licence) valid"
means the action taken by a Contracting State, as an alternative to issuing its own licence, in accepting a licence issued by any other Contracting State as the equivalent of its own licence;
"repetitive flight plan"
means a flight plan related to a series of frequently recurring, regularly operated individual flights with identical basic features, submitted by an operator for retention and repetitive use by ATS units;
"reporting point"
means a specified geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft can be reported;
"repair"
means a restoration of an aircraft, engine, propeller or any associated part to an airworthy condition to ensure that an aircraft continues to comply with the design aspects of the appropriate airworthiness requirements used for the issuance of a type certificate for the respective type, after it has been damaged or subjected to wear;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(ggg) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"required communication performance"
means a statement of the performance requirements for operational communication in support of specific ATM functions;
"required communication performance type"
means a label (e.g. RCP 240) that represents the values assigned to RCP parameters for communication transaction time, continuity, availability and integrity;
"required navigation performance"
means a statement of the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace;
"required surveillance performance specifications"
means a set of requirements for air traffic service provision and associated ground equipment, aircraft capability and operations needed to support performance-based surveillance;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(m) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"RNP Type"
means a containment value expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended position within which flights would be for at least 95 percent of the total flying time;
"rescue service"
means a service as defined in section 1 of the Fire Brigade Services Act, 1987 (Act No. 99 of 1987), a medical service or any other related service;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(hhh) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"reserve parachute"
means an emergency parachute assembly designed and approved to be used as the secondary parachute after the failure of a main parachute;
"resident of the Republic"
means a person who has his or her ordinary residence in the Republic and who is a South African citizen or is in the possession of a permit for permanent residence in the Republic issued in terms of sections 26 and 27 of the Immigration Act, 2002 (Act No.13 of 2002);
"resolution"
in relation to Part 175, means a number of units or digits to which a measured or calculated value is expressed and used;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(rr) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"responsible person"
in relation to aircraft operations, means the person who accepts ultimate responsibility for the aircraft, the flight and all persons on-board, including the flight crew members;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(rr) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"rest period"
means a continuous, uninterrupted. and defined period of ti me, between two consecutive duty periods, during which a crew member is free of all duties;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(b) of Notice No. 5008, GG50880, dated 28 June 2024 (Twenty-Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2024)]
"restricted area"
means —
(a) | any airspace as defined in regulation 91.06.20 of the Regulations; |
(b) | any area on an aerodrome or heliport defined as such by the aerodrome or heliport licence holder; or |
(c) | the area as defined in section 1 of the Act; |
"restricted category"
means a category for special purposes operations;
"restricted visual line-of-sight"
means an operation within 500 m of the remote pilot and below the height of the highest obstacle within 300 m of the RPA, in which the remote pilot maintains direct unaided visual contact with the RPA to manage its flight and meet separation and collision avoidance responsibilities;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(l) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"revalidation check"
means a check carried out for the purpose of revalidating a pilot rating;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ss) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"reward"
has the same meaning as "remuneration";
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(tt) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"RNAV/BARO VNAV procedures"
refers to non-precision instrument approach procedure which utilises RNAV for lateral guidance and a computed, barometrically referenced glide path for vertical navigation providing a vertical glide path reference on a cockpit display and which is promulgated with a DA/H - for minima determination;
"RNAV specification"
means a navigation specification based on area navigation that does not include the requirement for performance monitoring and alerting, designated by the prefix RNAV, e.g. RNAV 5, RNAV 1;
"RNP specification"
means a navigation specification based on area navigation that includes the requirements for performance monitoring and alerting, designated by the prefix RNP, e.g. RNP 4, RNP APCH;
"RNP type"
means a containment value expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended position within which flights would be for at least 95 percent of the total flight time;
"rocket"
means an airborne vehicle propelled by ejected expanding gases generated in its engines from self contained propellants and not dependent on the intake of outside substances and it includes any part that becomes separated during operation;
"rotorcraft"
means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on one or more rotors;
"rotorcraft flight manual"
means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the rotorcraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members of the safe operation of the rotorcraft;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(p) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"RPA observer"
means a trained and competent person designated by the operator of an RPA who, by visual observation of the RPA, assists the remote pilot in the safe conduct of the flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"runway"
means a defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(o) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017)]
"runway-holding position"
means a designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle limitation surface, or an ILS/ MLS critical/sensitive area at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorized by the aerodrome control tower;
Note- | In radiotelephony phraseologies, the expression "holding point" is used to designate the runway-holding position. |
"runway incursion"
means any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for landing and take-off of aircraft;
"runway visual range"
means the runway visual range over which the pilot of an aeroplane on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line;
"RVSM airspace"
the airspace between flight level 290 and flight level 410;
"RVSM approval certificate"
means a certificate to show compliance for aircraft and flight crew to operate in RVSM airspace;
"SACAA-FSTD A"
means the General Technical Standard Document for Qualification of Flight Training Devices Aeroplanes published by the SACAA;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(q) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"SACAA-FSTD H"
means the General Technical Standard Document for Qualification of Flight Training Devices Helicopters published by the SACAA;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(q) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"safe forced landing"
means unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable expectancy of no injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the surface;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(q) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"safety"
means a state in which risks associated with aviation activities, related to, or in direct support of the operation of aircraft, are reduced and controlled to an acceptable level;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(uu) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"safety data"
means a defined set of facts or a set of safety values collected from various aviation related sources, which is used to maintain or improve data collected from proactive or reactive safety-related activities, including:
(a) | accident or incident related reports and investigations; |
(b) | safety reporting; |
(c) | continuing airworthiness reporting; |
(d) | operational performance monitoring; |
(e) | inspections, audits, and surveys; or |
(f) | safety studies and reviews; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(e) of Notice No. R. 3169, GG 48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Fifth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"safety information"
means safety data processed, organised or analysed in a given context so as to make it useful for safety management purposes;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R. 3169, GG 48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Fifth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"safety sensitive activity employee"
means a person that is performing duties that have an impact on the safety of passengers, flight crew, airside personnel, other people on an aircraft and people on the ground;
Note- This includes: flight crew; flight attendant (cabin crew); flight instructor; flight dispatcher; maintenance personnel; aviation screener; ground security coordinator; operations controller; ramp personnel; load controller; driver and front-line or operational staff in freight terminal, catering centre and airport;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(iii) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"safety management system"
means a systematic approach to managing safety, including the necessary organizational structures, accountability, responsibilities, policies and procedures;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(f) of Notice No. R. 3169, GG 48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Fifth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"safety manager"
means a person appointed by an entity in terms of regulation 140.01.2;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ww) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"safety officer"
has the same meaning as "safety manager";
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ww) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"safety oversight"
means a function performed by an appropriate authority to ensure that persons and organisations performing an aviation activity comply with safety related regulations;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(h) of Notice No. R. 3169, GG 48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Fifth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"safety performance"
means a State or a service provider’s safety achievement as defined by its safety performance targets and safety performance indicators;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(xx) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"safety performance indicator"
means a data-based parameter used for monitoring and assessing safety performance;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(xx) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"safety performance target"
means a State or service provider's planned or intended target for a safety performance indicator over a given period that aligns with the safety objectives;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(i) of Notice No. R. 3169, GG 48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Fifth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"safety pilot"
in terms of Part 61 and Part 91 means a pilot whose sole purpose during flight time is to maintain a visual lookout for threats to an aircraft during simulated instrument flight and to monitor the aircraft's engine and navigation instruments to ensure exceedences do not occur;
"safety programme"
means an integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at improving safety;
"safety recommendation"
means a proposal of an investigator-in-charge based on information derived from an investigation and made with the intention of preventing accidents or incidents, and which in no case has the purpose of creating a presumption of blame or liability for an accident or incident. In addition to safety recommendations arising from accident and incident investigations, safety recommendations may result from diverse sources, including safety studies;
"safety risk"
means the predicted probability and severity of the consequences or outcomes of a hazard;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(xx) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"Satellite ATO"
means an ATO with a different management team reporting to the accountable executive of an already existing ATO approved in terms of Part 141;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(jjj) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"satisfactory evidence"
means a set of documents or activities that a Contracting State accepts as sufficient to show compliance with an airworthiness requirement;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(r) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"scheduled public air transport service"
means a public air transport service in connection with which flights are open to use by members of the public and are undertaken—
(a) | between the same two or more points or are of such a slight variation from the same two or more points that each flight can reasonably be regarded as being between the same two or more points; and |
(b) | according to a published timetable or with such a degree of regularity and frequency that they constitute a recognisable systematic series; |
"scheduled public international air service"
means a scheduled international air service as defined in regulation 1 of the International Air Service Regulation, 1994;
"screening"
means the application of technical or other means that are intended to detect weapons, explosives, incendiary devices or other devices that may be used to commit an unlawful act that could endanger the safety of an aircraft or its crew and passengers;
"seaplane"
means an aeroplane designed and constructed to take off from and land on water surfaces only;
"seat"
includes any area occupied by a passenger, excluding the area occupied by the baggage of such passenger, inside an aircraft;
"second-in-command"
means a licensed pilot serving in a piloting capacity other than as PIC, who is designated as second-in-command, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction;
"secondary frequency"
means the radiotelephony frequency assigned to an aircraft as a second choice for air to ground communication in a radiotelephony network;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(kkk) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"sector"
includes take-off, en-route flight time and landing, but excludes circuit operations;
"secure cargo"
has the same meaning as known cargo;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(yy) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"security"
means a combination of measures and human and material resources intended to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference;
"security control"
is a means by which the introduction of weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices which may be utilised to commit an act of unlawful interference can be prevented;
"security culture"
means a set of security-related norms, values, attitudes and assumptions that are inherent in the daily operation of an organisation and are reflected by the actions and behaviours of entities and personnel within an organisation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(ddd) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"security inspection"
means an announced or unannounced examination of the effectiveness of the implementation of specific security measures;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(eee) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"security restricted area"
means areas of the airside of an airport, which are identified as priority risk areas where in addition to access control, other security controls are applied;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(fff) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"security survey"
means an evaluation of security needs including the identification of vulnerabilities which could be exploited to carry out an act of unlawful interference, and the recommendation of corrective actions;
"security test"
means a covert or overt trial of an aviation security measure which simulates an attempt to commit an unlawful act;
"Selcal watch"
means a selective calling system to effect communication with aircraft by the use of a specific code which is detected by apparatus in the aircraft and "Selcal call sign" has a corresponding meaning;
"self-launching glider"
means a glider with a maximum all-up mass of not more than 850 kilograms, fitted with an engine that is used solely for the purpose of launch and climb and not for the sustenance of free flight;
"separate runways"
means that two or more runways at the same aerodrome are so configured such that if one runway is closed, operations to the other runway(s) can be conducted;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(r) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"series of flights"
means consecutive flights that:
(a) | begin and end within a period of 24 hours; and |
(b) | are all conducted by the same PIC; |
"serious incident"
means an incident involving circumstances indicating that there was a high probability of an accident and is associated with the operation of an aircraft which, in the case of a manned aircraft, takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked, or in the case of an unmanned aircraft, takes place between the time the aircraft is ready to move with the purpose of flight until such time it comes to rest at the end of the flight and the primary propulsion system is shut down;
"serious injury"
means an injury which—
(a) | requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, within seven days from the date on which the injury was sustained; |
(b) | results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose); |
(c) | involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, or nerve, muscle or tendon damage; |
(d) | involves injury to any internal organ; |
(e) | involves second or third degree bums or any bums affecting more than five percent of the surface of the body; or |
(f) | involves verified exposure to infectious or toxic substances or injurious radiation; |
"serviceable"
means, when used in relation to an aircraft, that the aircraft has been maintained and inspected in accordance with the requirements of the approved maintenance schedule and that all adjustments and rectifications found to be necessary, have been satisfactorily made;
"shift"
with respect to air traffic controlling, means the period between the actual commencement and the actual end of a period of duty during which an air traffic controller exercises, or may be called upon to exercise, the privileges of the rating at the traffic service unit for which such rating is validated, and includes breaks and time spent on duties including training, aerodrome inspection, administration, flight information service and any extension of duty;
"shift cycle"
means a consecutive 28 day period;
"shipper"
means any person who prepares or offers a package or overpack of goods for conveyance by air;
"SIGMET information"
means information issued by a MWO concerning an occurrence or expected occurrence of specified weather en-route and other phenomena in the atmosphere which may affect the safety of aircraft operations;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(u) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"signal area"
means an area on an aerodrome used for the display of ground signals;
"significant"
when used in the context of the medical provisions contained in Part 67, means to a degree or of a nature that is likely to jeopardise a flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zz) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"simulator"
See "flight simulator training device";
"skills test"
means a test conducted by a suitable person to assess the competence of an applicant for a licence or certificate;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(ggg) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"small aeroplane"
means an aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5 700 kg or less;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(s) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"SNOWTAM"
means a special series NOTAM given in a standard format providing a surface condition report notifying the presence or cessation of hazardous conditions due to snow, ice slush, frost, standing water or water associated with snow, slush, ice, or frost on an aircraft movement area;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(hhh) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"sole means navigation system"
refers to a navigation system, approved by the Director for a given operation or phase of flight, that allows the aircraft to meet, for that operation or phase of flight, the four navigation system performance requirements; accuracy, integrity, availability, and continuity;
"solo flight"
means—
(a) | in relation to aircraft, flight time during which a student pilot is a sole occupant of an aircraft; and |
(b) | in relation to RPAS, flight time during which a student remote pilot is controlling a RPA, acting solo; |
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(iii) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"South African registered aircraft"
means an aircraft which is registered in terms of regulation 47.00.6;
"SPECI"
means aerodrome special meteorological report in meteorological code;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(lll) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"space weather centre"
means a centre designated to monitor and provide advisory information on space weather phenomena expected to affect high- frequency radio communications, communications via satellite, GNSS-based navigation and surveillance systems or pose a radiation risk to aircraft occupants;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(jjj) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"space weather service"
means service observing and monitoring activities on the sun surface and providing relevant users with space weather advisory information;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(jjj) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"special flight permit"
means a permit issued in the place of an authority to fly, or where an authority to fly has lapsed for purposes including, but not limited to, ferry, delivery, demonstration or transfer flights, to a destination for the purposes of repairs, maintenance, inspections or as may be considered necessary for special purposes;
"special purpose operational training"
means a simulator training session designed to address specific training objectives. Training objectives are based on technical and CRM requirements, and include specific training objectives to be critiqued and debriefed on both technical and CRM performance. SPOT may consist of full or partial flight segments depending on the training objectives for the flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(s) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"special purposes operations"
includes —
(a) | agricultural spraying, seeding and dusting; |
(b) | cloud spraying, seeding and dusting; |
(c) | culling; |
(d) | aerial patrol, observation and survey; |
(e) | advertising; |
(f) | aerial recording by photographic or electronic means; |
(g) | fire spotting, control and fighting; and |
(h) | spraying, seeding or dusting other than for agricultural purposes and clouds; |
"special rules area"
means airspace other than restricted airspace where special non-standard rules are applied in order to promote safety, efficiency and orderliness outside of controlled airspace;
"special VFR flight"
means a VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to fly within a control zone under meteorological conditions below the visual meteorological conditions;
"Specific approval"
means an approval by the Director, permitting an operator to conduct operations relating to EDTO, RVSM, LVO, AND PBN, including utilisation of HUD and EFB, as specified in the OpSpec for commercial air transport operations or in the list of specific approvals for non-commercial operations;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(k) of Notice No. R. 3169, GG 48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Fifth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"standard atmosphere"
means an atmosphere defined as follows:
a) the air is a perfect dry gas;
b) the physical constants are:
- | Sea level means molar mass: |
MO = 28.964 420 x 10-3 kg mol-1
- | Sea level atmospheric pressure: |
PO = 1013.250 hPa
- | Sea level temperature: |
t0 = 15°C
TO = 288.15 K
- | Sea level atmospheric density: |
p0 = 1.225 0 kg m-3
- | Temperature of the ice point: |
Ti = 273.15 K
- | Universal gas constant: |
R* = 8.314 32 JK-1mo1-1
c) | the temperature gradients are: |
Geopotential altitude
(km) |
Temperature gradient |
|
(Kelvin per standard |
||
From |
To |
|
-5.0 |
11.0 |
-6.5 |
11.0 |
20.0 |
0.0 |
20.0 |
32.0 |
+1.0 |
32.0 |
47.0 |
+2.8 |
47.0 |
51.0 |
0.0 |
51.0 |
71.0 |
-2.8 |
71.0 |
80.0 |
-2.0 |
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(t) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"standard category"
means a category for normal, transport, utility and commuter operations, including acrobatic, emergency medical service, flying training, semi-acrobatic, helicopter external-load and manned free balloon operations;
"standby duty"
for the purposes of an air operator's approved flight time and duty period programme, means a period of time during which a crew member is required to remain at a specified location in order to be available to report for flight duty on notice at the discretion of the operator;
"state aircraft"
means aircraft used in military, customs and police services;
"state pair"
means two contracting States composed of a State of departure or its territory and a State of arrival or its territory;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(v) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"State of the Aerodrome"
means the State in whose territory the aerodrome is located;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(t) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"State of Design"
means the State which has authority over the organisation responsible for the type design of an aircraft;
"State of Manufacture"
means a State having jurisdiction over an organisation responsible for final assembly of an aircraft, RPS, engine, or propeller;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(kkk) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"State of Occurrence"
means the state in the territory of which an accident or incident occurs;
"State of origin"
means a State in the territory of which the cargo consignment is first loaded on an aircraft;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(r) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"State of Registry''
means the State on whose register an aircraft is entered;
"State of the Operator"
means the State in which the principal place of business of an operator of an aircraft is located or, if there is no such place of business, the State where the operator of the aircraft has permanent residence;
"state safety program"
means an integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at improving aviation safety;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(s) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"stores"
means articles of a readily consumable nature for use or sale on board an aircraft during flight, including commissary supplies;
"student parachutist"
means a person who is on the first level of training of an approved aviation recreation organisation;
"student-pilot-in-command"
See "pilot-in-command-under-supervision";
"student pilot-in-command instrument time"
means flight time during which a flight instructor will only observe the student acting as PIC without influencing or controlling the flight of the aircraft;
"student pilot licence integrated course"
[Definition deleted by regulation 2(a) of Notice No. R. 984, GG 41915, dated 21 September 2018 (Nineteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2018)]
"sub-charter"
means a wet lease-in by an air service operator (the lessee) from an air service operator in his, her or its own right (the lessor) on short notice and for a period not exceeding five consecutive days;
"sub-lease"
when used in reference to an aircraft lease means the lease of a leased aircraft to or by a third party;
"subsonic aeroplane"
means an aeroplane incapable of sustaining level flight at speeds exceeding flight Mach number of one;
"suitable aerodrome"
means an adequate aerodrome—
(a) | with weather reports or forecasts or any combination thereof, indicating that the weather conditions are at or above operating minima, as specified in the operation specifications; |
(b) | the field condition reports indicate that a safe landing can be accomplished at the time of the intended operation; and |
(c) | the facilities necessary to complete an approach at such aerodrome are operational; |
"supernumerary"
means a person other than a flight crew member, a cabin crew member or a passenger, who is carried on board an aircraft and who is—
(a) | assigned to the flight by the air service operator as necessary for the safety of operations and has the required knowledge and abilities gained through selection and mandatory training; or |
(b) | an authorised officer, inspector, auditor or observer authorised by the Director or the air service operator to be on board to perform his or her duties; |
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(t) of Notice No. R. 409, GG 40831, dated 5 May 2017 (Fifteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"supplemental-means navigation system"
refers to an air navigation system that is used in conjunction with a sole-means navigation system in order for the aircraft to meet the following four navigation system criteria: accuracy, integrity, reliability and continuity;
"supplemental type certificate"
means a certificate issued in terms of regulation 21.05.3, which authorises the holder thereof to alter a product for which such holder is not the type certificate holder, by introducing a major change in the type design which is not great enough to require a new application for a type certificate;
"surface contamination training"
means training in accordance with an operator's procedures for removal of frozen contaminants from the critical surfaces of an aeroplane as established by the manufacturer from the time of initial de-icing application to the point of last change prior to a take-off;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(mmm) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"surface-level heliport"
means a heliport located on the ground or on a structure on the surface of the water;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(lll) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"surface-level helistop"
means a helistop located on the ground;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(lll) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"surveillance"
means an activity through which an appropriate authority proactively verifies, through inspection and audit, that a holder of an aviation licence, certificate, authorisation, approval continue to meet established requirements and function at a level of competency and safety required by legislation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(l) of Notice No. R. 3169, GG 48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Fifth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"surveillance system"
means a generic term referring to ADS-8, PSR, SSR or any comparable ground based system that enables the identification of aircraft;
"swarming"
means an operation of more than one UAS controlled collectively by one remote pilot station rather than individually;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(mmm) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"synthetic training device"
means a device used to simulate a real time scenario for training purposes;
"synthetic vision system"
means a system to display data-derived synthetic images of the external scene from the perspective of the flight deck;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(v) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"systems acceptance flight"
means a flight for the purpose of testing the operation or effective functioning of a system of an aircraft that does not affect the flying characteristics of the aircraft;
"take-off alternate aerodrome"
means an aerodrome to which a flight may proceed should the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure preclude a return for landing;
"take-off and initial climb phase"
means that part of the flight of a helicopter from the start of take-off to 300 m (1 000 ft) above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or to the end of the climb in the other cases;
"take-off decision point"
means the point used in determining take-off performance from which, a power unit failure having been recognised at this point, either a rejected take-off may be made of a take-off safely continued;
"take-off distance available"
means—
(a) | in the case of an aeroplane, the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available; or |
(b) | in the case of a helicopter, the distance from the point of lift-off to the nearest obstacle in the take-off path of 50 feet or higher; |
"take-off mass"
means the mass of the aircraft, including everything and every person carried in the aircraft at the commencement of the take-off run or lift-off, as the case may be;
"take-off run available"
means the length of runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off;
"take-off surface"
means the part of the surface of an aerodrome which the aerodrome operator has declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft taking off in a particular direction;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(p) of Notice No. R. 432, GG 40846, dated 19 May 2017 (Sixteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2017)]
"tandem master"
means the person responsible for the direct control of a tandem parachute descent using a tandem parachute assembly when a tandem passenger is being carried and who has been authorised by an approved aviation recreation organisation;
"tandem parachute descent"
means a parachute descent involving a tandem passenger and tandem master in a common tandem parachute assembly which is under the direct control of the tandem master;
"tandem pair"
means a tandem master and tandem passenger;
"tandem passenger"
means a person participating in a tandem parachute descent under the direct control of a tandem master using the secondary harness of a tandem harness system;
"target level of safety" (TLS)
means a generic term representing the level of risk which is considered acceptable in particular circumstances;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(v) of Notice No. R. 534, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Third Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"taxi"
means the movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power, excluding take-off and landing;
"taxiway"
means a defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another, and includes—
(a) | aircraft stand taxilane. A portion of an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to provide access to aircraft stands only; |
(b) | apron taxiway. A portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron and |
(c) | rapid exit taxiway. A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to tum off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways thereby minimizing runway occupancy times; |
"TCAS I"
means ACAS equipment meeting FAA TSO-C118 specifications;
"TCAS II"
means ACAS equipment meeting FAA TSO-C119 specifications; the equipment comes in two versions, namely "version 6.04A" meeting TSO-C119a specifications, and "version 7" meeting both TSO-C 119b and ICAO-ACAS II specifications;
"Technical Standard Order"
means a minimum performance standard issued by the Director for specified materials, parts, processes or appliances, used on aircraft;
"temporary training"
means any intermittent training;
"terminal arrival altitude"
means the lowest altitude that will provide a minimum clearance of 1 000 ft above all objects located in an arc of a circle defined by a 25 NM radius centred on the initial approach fix (IAF), or where there is no IAF, on the intermediate approach fix (IF), delimited by straight lines joining the extremity of the arc to the IF. The combined TAAs associated with an approach procedure shall account for an area of 360 degrees around the IF;
"terminal control area"
means a control area established at the confluence of air traffic service routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes as published in an AlP, AIC or NOTAM and designated as a terminal control area;
"terrain"
means the surface of the Earth containing naturally occurring features such as mountains, hills, valleys, bodies of water, permanent ice and snow, and excluding obstacles;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zC) of Notice No. R. 783, GG 39151, dated 1 September 2015 (Ninth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"test flight"
means a flight for the purpose of the issuing, validating or rendering effective and authority to fly or a certificate of airworthiness of an aircraft;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(zD) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"the Act"
means the Civil Aviation Act, 2009 (Act No. 13 of 2009);
"the Regulations"
means these regulations and include any technical standard issued thereunder;
"third-party training"
means a use of another organisation's courseware, personnel, facilities or equipment;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(nnn) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"threat"
as used in the context of operating an aircraft, means events or errors, as defined, that occur beyond the influence of the flight crew, increase operational complexity, and which must be managed to maintain the margin of safety;
"threat management"
means the process of detecting and responding to the threats with countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats, and mitigate the probability of errors, as defined, or undesired aircraft conditions;
"threshold"
means the beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing;
"threshold time"
means the range, expressed in time, established by the State of the Operator to an en-route alternate aerodrome, whereby any time beyond requires an EDTO approval from the State of the Operator;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(s) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"tiltrotor"
means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, other than an aeroplane, deriving its lift in flight mainly from aerodynamic reactions—
(a) | on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions; or |
(b) | on more than one power-driven rotors on axis that may be tilted during flight from the vertical to the horizontal and vice versa; or |
(c) | from a combination thereof; |
"time-in-position"
means a period of time when an air traffic controller is exercising the privileges of an air traffic service personnel's licence at an operational position;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ooo) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"total cosmic radiation"
means the total of ionizing and neutron radiation of galactic and solar origin;
"total estimated elapsed time"
means for IFR flights, the estimated time required from take-off to arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, if no navigation aid is associated with the destination aerodrome, to arrive over the destination aerodrome. For VFR flights, the estimated time required from take-off to arrive over the destination aerodrome;
''total vertical error"
means the vertical geometric difference between the actual pressure altitude flown by an aircraft and its assigned pressure altitude (flight level);
"touch-down area"
means a load bearing area on which a helicopter may touch down;
"touch-down area available"
means the length and width of the touch-down area which is declared available and suitable for the landing of a helicopter;
"touring glider"
means an aeroplane with a maximum all-up mass of not more than 850 kilograms fitted with an engine and having the characteristics of a glider when the engine is inoperative that is primarily controlled by manipulating its primary flight control surfaces by conventional methods and other classification parameters as are defined in Document SA-CATS 24;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(ppp) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"touring motor glider"
[Definition deleted by regulation 2(qqq) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"tow"
means the action of pulling an unmanned object behind an aircraft;
"tow pilot rating"
means the rating required by a pilot who intends to act as PIC of an aircraft while towing a banner;
"toy aircraft"
means a product falling under the definition of aircraft which is designed or intended for use in play by children;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(m) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"track"
means the projection on the earth's surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic or grid);
"traffic alert and collision avoidance system"
is the term used by the US FAA for US developed ACAS equipment, a term also used inter alia by the New Zealand authorities;
"traffic avoidance advice"
means advice provided by an air traffic services unit specifying manoeuvres to assist a pilot to avoid a collision;
"traffic information"
means information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to other known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision;
"traffic load"
means the total mass of passengers, baggage and cargo, including any non-revenue load;
"training"
means the training or the tests or the verifications of skill or proficiency, specified in the Regulations;
"transfer cargo or mail"
means cargo or mail departing on an aircraft other than that on which it arrived;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zE) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"transit cargo and mail"
means cargo or mail departing on the same aircraft on which it arrived;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zF) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"transhipment cargo and mail"
means cargo or mail that is destined for onward carriage by air;
"transition altitude"
means the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes;
''transition level"
means the attitude above which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to flight levels;
"tropical cyclone"
means a non-frontal synoptic-scale cyclone originating over tropical or sub-tropical waters with organised convection and definite cyclonic surface wind circulation;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(nnn) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"tropical cyclone advisory centre"
means meteorological centre designated to provide advisory information to MWO, world area forecast centres and international OPMET databanks regarding the position, forecast direction and speed of movement, central pressure and maximum surface wind of tropical cyclones;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(w) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"trust"
means a trust as defined in the Trust Property Control Act, 1988 (Act No. 57 of 1988);
"tug"
means the action of pulling a manned aircraft behind another aircraft;
"turbine powered aircraft"
means a turbo-propeller, turbojet or turbofan powered aircraft;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zG) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"turbo-propeller"
means a jet engine designed to produce thrust principally by means of a propeller driven by a turbine with additional thrust usually obtained by the rearward discharge of hot exhaust gases;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zG) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"turbofan"
means a type of by-pass engine in which a large fan driven by a turbine and housed in a short duct forces air rearwards around the exhaust gases in order to increase the propulsive thrust;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zG) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"turbojet"
means a jet engine in which a turbine drives a compressor that supplies air to a burner and hot gases from the burner drive the turbine before being discharged rearward;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zG) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"TSO authorisation"
means a design and production approval issued to the manufacturer of an article which complies with a specific TSO;
"type certificate"
means a document issued by a Contracting State to define a design of an aircraft, RPS, engine, or propeller type and to certify that this design meets appropriate airworthiness requirements of that State;
Note: In some Contracting States a document equivalent to a type certificate may be issued for an engine or propeller type or for a remote pilot station type.
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(ooo) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"type design"
means a set of data and information necessary to define an aircraft, RPS, engine, or propeller type for the purpose of airworthiness determination;
[Definition substituted by regulation 1(ppp) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"type of aircraft"
means all aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications thereto except those modifications which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics;
"ultimate load"
means the limit load, multiplied by the appropriate factor of safety;
"unaccompanied baggage"
means baggage which is transported as cargo and may or may not be carried on the same aircraft with the person to whom it belongs;
"unidentified baggage"
means baggage at an airport, with or without a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or identified with a passenger;
"unit load device"
means any type of freight container, aircraft container, aircraft pallet with a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo;
"unknown cargo"
means cargo that has not been classified as known cargo and that shall be subject to screening when tendered for carriage by air;
"UN number"
means a number assigned by the United Nations Committee of Experts on the Trans port of Dangerous Goods and on the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals to identify an article or a substance or a particular group of articles or substances;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(rrr) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"Unmanned aircraft"
means an aircraft that is intended to be operated with no pilot onboard;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(qqq) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"unmanned aircraft system"
means an aircraft and its associated elements which are operated with no pilot on board;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(qqq) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"upper-air chart"
means a meteorological chart relating to a specified upper-air surface or layer of the atmosphere;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(rrr) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"usability factor"
means a percentage of time during which the use of a runway is not restricted because of the crosswind component;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(rrr) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"unsecure cargo"
has the same meaning as unknown cargo;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zI) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"upgrade training"
means training provided to advance a flight crew member from one flight crew position to a higher flight crew position;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(sss) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"user of a flight simulator or flight training device"
means the person who uses the simulator or device in a training, testing or checking program;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(t) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"valid"
when used in connection with a licence, rating, certificate, validation, authority, approval or similar document means—
(a) | that the expiry date on the document, if any, has not been exceeded; |
(b) | that the document has been issued legally and properly to its holder, and has not been suspended or cancelled by the issuing authority; and |
(c) | that all requirements, prescribed by these Regulations in respect of the document, have been complied with; |
"validation"
means an authorisation entered on a licence and forming part thereof to exercise one of the following -
(a) | a specific rating at a specific ATSU; or |
(b) | the privileges of the foreign licence to which it is attached, containing special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such rating, as the case may be; |
"validation examiner"
means an official validation examiner appointed by the Director or a validation examiner who has been designated in terms of the provisions of Regulation 65.01.9;
"validation for aeronautical information"
means confirmation of aeronautical information and data, which meets the specified intended use or application;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(uuu) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"variable-pitch propeller"
means a propeller, the pitch setting of which changes or can be changed when the propeller is rotating, and includes—
(a) | a propeller, the pitch setting of which is directly under the control of the flight crew; |
(b) | a propeller, the pitch setting of which is controlled by a governor or other automatic means, which may be either integral with the propeller or a separately mounted accessory, and which may, or may not, be controlled by the flight crew; and |
(c) | a propeller, the pitch setting of which may be controlled by a combination of (a) and (b) above; |
"verification"
means confirmation, through a provision of objective evidence, that the requirements for a specific intended use or application have been fulfilled;
[Definition substituted by regulation 2(vvv) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"verification body"
means an accredited independent third party responsible for verification of emission reports including emission units cancellation report;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(x) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"verification of report"
means an independent and systematic evaluation process of an emissions report and, when required, a cancellation of eligible emissions units report, which has been sufficiently documented'
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(x) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"verification report"
means a document, issued by a verification body, containing a verification statement and required supporting information;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(x) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"vertical navigation"
refers to a method of navigation that permits aircraft operation on a vertical flight profile, using altimetry sources, external or space-based flight path references, or a combination thereof;
"veteran aircraft"
means a previously type-certificated aircraft of which the airworthiness is no longer supported by the holder of the type certificate, or for which a valid type certificate is no longer held by any person;
"virtual training"
means training conducted when a learner and instructor are in separate locations computing, using internet or online learning environment to simulate the traditional classroom or learning experience to ensure e-Learning training;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(www) of Notice No. R.1503, GG45491, dated 16 November 2021 (Twenty-First Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2021)]
"visibility''
means the ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units of measurement, to see and identify prominent unlighted objects by day and prominent lighted objects by night, expressed in technical terms as—
(a) | the greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated near the ground, can be seen and recognized when observed against a bright background; or |
(b) | the greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1 000 candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit background; |
Notes-
(a) | The two distances have different values in air of a given extinction coefficient, and the latter (b) varies with the background illumination. The former (a) is represented by the meteorological optical range (MOR). |
(b) | The definition applies to the observations of visibility in local routine and special reports, to the observations of prevailing and minimum visibility reported in METAR and SPEC/ and to the observations of ground visibility; |
"visual approach"
means an approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain;
"visual flight rules flight"
means a flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules;
"visual line-of-sight"
means an operation below 400 ft above ground level in which the remote pilot, maintains direct and unaided visual contact with the RPA at a distance not exceeding 500 m;
Note: | See pictorial view of VLOS and EVLOS in Document SA-CATS 101 Appendix A. |
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(n) of Notice No. R. 444, GG 38830, dated 27 May 2015 (Eighth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2015)]
"visual meteorological conditions"
means atmospheric conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud or ceiling, equal to or better than the minima prescribed for VFR flight in regulation 91.06.21;
"voice-automatic terminal information service (Voice-ATIS)"
means the provision of ATIS by means of continuous and repetitive voice broadcasts;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zK) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"volcanic ash advisory centre"
means a meteorological centre designated by a regional air navigation agreement to provide advisory information to MWOS, ATSU, world area forecast centres and international OPMET databanks regarding the lateral and vertical extent and forecast movement of volcanic ash in the atmosphere;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(sss) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"VOLMET"
means meteorological information for aircraft in flight;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(zK) of Notice No. R. 1349, GG 40376, dated 28 October 2016 (Fourteenth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2016)]
"volume"
means the quantity of three-dimensional space occupied by a liquid, solid or gas and is measured in litres where 1L = 1dm3= 10-3m3;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(y) of Notice No. R. 520, GG 42632, dated 29 March 2019 (Twentieth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2019)]
"VToss"
means the minimum speed at which climb shall be achieved with the critical engine inoperative, the remaining engines operating within approved operating limits;
[Definition inserted by regulation 2(u) of Notice No. R. 535, GG 36712, dated 30 July 2013 (Fourth Amendment to the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2013)]
"weight-shift controlled microlight aeroplane"
means an aeroplane that is primarily controlled by physically exerting force on the wing and with other classification parameters as defined in Document SA-CATS 24 as technical standard 24.01.2.E.2;
"wet lease"
means an operating lease in terms of which the aircraft is leased with crew, and in respect of which the lessor remains responsible for the aircraft's maintenance, operational control (as defined), and hull and third-party liability insurance;
"wet runway"
means a runway of which less than 25 percent of the surface is covered with water, slush or loose snow or when there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.
"world area forecast centre"
means a meteorological centre designated to prepare and issue significant weather forecasts and upper-air forecasts in digital form on a global basis direct to States using aeronautical fixed service Internet- based services;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(ttt) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]
"world area forecast system"
means a worldwide system by which world area forecast centres provide aeronautical meteorological en-route forecasts in uniform standardised formats;
[Definition inserted by regulation 1(ttt) of Notice No. R. 3170, GG48228, dated 17 March 2023 (Twenty-Sixth Amendment of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2023)]